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1
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Non-probability sampling is that sampling procedure which does not afford any basis for estimating the probability that each item in the population has of being included in the sample. Non-probability sampling is also known by different name such as deliberate sampling, purposive sampling and judgment sampling. In this type of sampling. Items for the sample are selected deliberately by the researcher; his choice concerning the items remains supreme. In words, under non-probability sampling, the organizers of the inquiry purposively choose the particular units of the universe for constituting a sample on the basis that the small mass that they so select out of a huge one will be typical or representative of the whole. For instance, if economic conditions of the people living in a state are to be studied, a few towns and villages may be purposively selected for intensive study on the principle that they can by representative of the entire state. Thus, the judgment of the organizers of the study plays an important part in this sampling design.In such a design, personal element has a great change of entering into the selection of the sample. The investigator may select a sample which shall yield results favourable to his point of view and if that happens, the entire inquiry may get vitiated. Thus, there is always the danger of bias entering into this type of sampling technique. But if the investigators are impartial, work without bias and have the necessary experience so as to take sound judgment, the results obtained from an analysis of deliberately selected sample may be tolerably reliable. However, in such a sampling, there is no assurance that every element has some specifiable chance of being included. Sampling error in this type of sampling cannot be estimated and the element of bias, great or small, is always there. As such this sampling design gets rarely adopted in large inquiries of importance. However, in small inquiries and researches by individuals, this design may be adopted because of the relative advantage of time and money inherent in this method of sampling. Quota sampling is also an example of non-probability sampling. Under quota sampling the interviewers are simply given quota to be filled from the different strata, with some restrictions on how they are to be filled. In other words, the actual selection of the items for the sample is left to the interviewer’s discretion. This type of sampling is very convenient and is relatively inexpensive. But the samples so selected certainly do not possess the characteristic of random sample. Quota samples are essentially judgment samples and inferences drawn on their basis are not amenable to statistical treatment in a formal way. Results obtained from an analysis of a deliberately selected sample may be reliable if:(a) Investigators are unbiased.(b) Investigators are experienced.(c) Investigators select a favourable sample.(d) Investigators use statistical methods.
2
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Non-probability sampling is that sampling procedure which does not afford any basis for estimating the probability that each item in the population has of being included in the sample. Non-probability sampling is also known by different name such as deliberate sampling, purposive sampling and judgment sampling. In this type of sampling. Items for the sample are selected deliberately by the researcher; his choice concerning the items remains supreme. In words, under non-probability sampling, the organizers of the inquiry purposively choose the particular units of the universe for constituting a sample on the basis that the small mass that they so select out of a huge one will be typical or representative of the whole. For instance, if economic conditions of the people living in a state are to be studied, a few towns and villages may be purposively selected for intensive study on the principle that they can by representative of the entire state. Thus, the judgment of the organizers of the study plays an important part in this sampling design.In such a design, personal element has a great change of entering into the selection of the sample. The investigator may select a sample which shall yield results favourable to his point of view and if that happens, the entire inquiry may get vitiated. Thus, there is always the danger of bias entering into this type of sampling technique. But if the investigators are impartial, work without bias and have the necessary experience so as to take sound judgment, the results obtained from an analysis of deliberately selected sample may be tolerably reliable. However, in such a sampling, there is no assurance that every element has some specifiable chance of being included. Sampling error in this type of sampling cannot be estimated and the element of bias, great or small, is always there. As such this sampling design gets rarely adopted in large inquiries of importance. However, in small inquiries and researches by individuals, this design may be adopted because of the relative advantage of time and money inherent in this method of sampling. Quota sampling is also an example of non-probability sampling. Under quota sampling the interviewers are simply given quota to be filled from the different strata, with some restrictions on how they are to be filled. In other words, the actual selection of the items for the sample is left to the interviewer’s discretion. This type of sampling is very convenient and is relatively inexpensive. But the samples so selected certainly do not possess the characteristic of random sample. Quota samples are essentially judgment samples and inferences drawn on their basis are not amenable to statistical treatment in a formal way. Which of the following statements is made in the passage?
3
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Non-probability sampling is that sampling procedure which does not afford any basis for estimating the probability that each item in the population has of being included in the sample. Non-probability sampling is also known by different name such as deliberate sampling, purposive sampling and judgment sampling. In this type of sampling. Items for the sample are selected deliberately by the researcher; his choice concerning the items remains supreme. In words, under non-probability sampling, the organizers of the inquiry purposively choose the particular units of the universe for constituting a sample on the basis that the small mass that they so select out of a huge one will be typical or representative of the whole. For instance, if economic conditions of the people living in a state are to be studied, a few towns and villages may be purposively selected for intensive study on the principle that they can by representative of the entire state. Thus, the judgment of the organizers of the study plays an important part in this sampling design.In such a design, personal element has a great change of entering into the selection of the sample. The investigator may select a sample which shall yield results favourable to his point of view and if that happens, the entire inquiry may get vitiated. Thus, there is always the danger of bias entering into this type of sampling technique. But if the investigators are impartial, work without bias and have the necessary experience so as to take sound judgment, the results obtained from an analysis of deliberately selected sample may be tolerably reliable. However, in such a sampling, there is no assurance that every element has some specifiable chance of being included. Sampling error in this type of sampling cannot be estimated and the element of bias, great or small, is always there. As such this sampling design gets rarely adopted in large inquiries of importance. However, in small inquiries and researches by individuals, this design may be adopted because of the relative advantage of time and money inherent in this method of sampling. Quota sampling is also an example of non-probability sampling. Under quota sampling the interviewers are simply given quota to be filled from the different strata, with some restrictions on how they are to be filled. In other words, the actual selection of the items for the sample is left to the interviewer’s discretion. This type of sampling is very convenient and is relatively inexpensive. But the samples so selected certainly do not possess the characteristic of random sample. Quota samples are essentially judgment samples and inferences drawn on their basis are not amenable to statistical treatment in a formal way. Why is the researcher’s judgment vital in the non-probability sampling design?
4
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Non-probability sampling is that sampling procedure which does not afford any basis for estimating the probability that each item in the population has of being included in the sample. Non-probability sampling is also known by different name such as deliberate sampling, purposive sampling and judgment sampling. In this type of sampling. Items for the sample are selected deliberately by the researcher; his choice concerning the items remains supreme. In words, under non-probability sampling, the organizers of the inquiry purposively choose the particular units of the universe for constituting a sample on the basis that the small mass that they so select out of a huge one will be typical or representative of the whole. For instance, if economic conditions of the people living in a state are to be studied, a few towns and villages may be purposively selected for intensive study on the principle that they can by representative of the entire state. Thus, the judgment of the organizers of the study plays an important part in this sampling design.In such a design, personal element has a great change of entering into the selection of the sample. The investigator may select a sample which shall yield results favourable to his point of view and if that happens, the entire inquiry may get vitiated. Thus, there is always the danger of bias entering into this type of sampling technique. But if the investigators are impartial, work without bias and have the necessary experience so as to take sound judgment, the results obtained from an analysis of deliberately selected sample may be tolerably reliable. However, in such a sampling, there is no assurance that every element has some specifiable chance of being included. Sampling error in this type of sampling cannot be estimated and the element of bias, great or small, is always there. As such this sampling design gets rarely adopted in large inquiries of importance. However, in small inquiries and researches by individuals, this design may be adopted because of the relative advantage of time and money inherent in this method of sampling. Quota sampling is also an example of non-probability sampling. Under quota sampling the interviewers are simply given quota to be filled from the different strata, with some restrictions on how they are to be filled. In other words, the actual selection of the items for the sample is left to the interviewer’s discretion. This type of sampling is very convenient and is relatively inexpensive. But the samples so selected certainly do not possess the characteristic of random sample. Quota samples are essentially judgment samples and inferences drawn on their basis are not amenable to statistical treatment in a formal way. Non-Probability Sampling is NOT known by this name.
5
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Non-probability sampling is that sampling procedure which does not afford any basis for estimating the probability that each item in the population has of being included in the sample. Non-probability sampling is also known by different name such as deliberate sampling, purposive sampling and judgment sampling. In this type of sampling. Items for the sample are selected deliberately by the researcher; his choice concerning the items remains supreme. In words, under non-probability sampling, the organizers of the inquiry purposively choose the particular units of the universe for constituting a sample on the basis that the small mass that they so select out of a huge one will be typical or representative of the whole. For instance, if economic conditions of the people living in a state are to be studied, a few towns and villages may be purposively selected for intensive study on the principle that they can by representative of the entire state. Thus, the judgment of the organizers of the study plays an important part in this sampling design.In such a design, personal element has a great change of entering into the selection of the sample. The investigator may select a sample which shall yield results favourable to his point of view and if that happens, the entire inquiry may get vitiated. Thus, there is always the danger of bias entering into this type of sampling technique. But if the investigators are impartial, work without bias and have the necessary experience so as to take sound judgment, the results obtained from an analysis of deliberately selected sample may be tolerably reliable. However, in such a sampling, there is no assurance that every element has some specifiable chance of being included. Sampling error in this type of sampling cannot be estimated and the element of bias, great or small, is always there. As such this sampling design gets rarely adopted in large inquiries of importance. However, in small inquiries and researches by individuals, this design may be adopted because of the relative advantage of time and money inherent in this method of sampling. Quota sampling is also an example of non-probability sampling. Under quota sampling the interviewers are simply given quota to be filled from the different strata, with some restrictions on how they are to be filled. In other words, the actual selection of the items for the sample is left to the interviewer’s discretion. This type of sampling is very convenient and is relatively inexpensive. But the samples so selected certainly do not possess the characteristic of random sample. Quota samples are essentially judgment samples and inferences drawn on their basis are not amenable to statistical treatment in a formal way. The Central Idea of the passage is concerned with :
6
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Bio-fuelHenry Ford and Rudolf Diesel these two persons made revolution in motor care industry. They expected that their motor car should be run on fuel obtained from plants, but in those days crude oil was the cheapest and won the competition. Petrol became popular and dream of Henry Ford and Rudolf Diesel shattered. After a century the will of Henry Ford and Rudolf Diesel is about to fulfill. Presently the hike in the petroleum opens the channel for bio-fuel. Slowly the use of bio-fuel in cars, trucks and aeroplanes is becoming popular.Brazil took lead in the bio-fuel. At present there are more than four hundred ethanol production centres in that country, that ethanol produced only from sugarcane. They do not use the pure gasoline but mixed 25% ethanol in it. In future, only ethanol consuming vehicles will be manufactured in that country. More and more land is used for the plantation of sugarcane and ethanol producing plants. “Gasoline cars are slowly disappearing.” Technicians of that country claim.Ethanol is obtained from maize in America. Germany is the largest producer of biodiesel in Europe. Along with India other 30 countries are trying to produce ethanol from various plants. Ethanol can be produced from the plants like coconut, soyabean, groundnut, palm, grapes and beetroot.The most important thing is that conventional car engines can be run on bio-fuel. Apart from this, the proper mixture of ethanol in gasoline of diesel can be used as fuel. The conventional diesel engine can run better in 20% bio-fuel. It means there is no need to change the vehicle engines for bio-fuel. Its speciality is that Boi-fuel does not emit carbon-dioxide.Nature take crores of years to produce crude-oil, instead the bio-fuel is obtained from the plants and vegetation. Bio-fuel not only emits the low carbon-dioxide but also does not emit the toxic gases like nitrogen oxide. The production of bio-fuel will be depending on the growth capacity of the plants and availability of land for the plantation. Apart from this production of bio-fuel will be possible from the various types of waste. Which of the following benefits of use of Bio-fuel are correct ?(a) Bio-fuel is made from vegetations.(b) Less pollution by use of bio-fuel.(c) Use of bio-fuel will save crude oil.(d) Bio-fuel is cheap.
7
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Bio-fuelHenry Ford and Rudolf Diesel these two persons made revolution in motor care industry. They expected that their motor car should be run on fuel obtained from plants, but in those days crude oil was the cheapest and won the competition. Petrol became popular and dream of Henry Ford and Rudolf Diesel shattered. After a century the will of Henry Ford and Rudolf Diesel is about to fulfill. Presently the hike in the petroleum opens the channel for bio-fuel. Slowly the use of bio-fuel in cars, trucks and aeroplanes is becoming popular.Brazil took lead in the bio-fuel. At present there are more than four hundred ethanol production centres in that country, that ethanol produced only from sugarcane. They do not use the pure gasoline but mixed 25% ethanol in it. In future, only ethanol consuming vehicles will be manufactured in that country. More and more land is used for the plantation of sugarcane and ethanol producing plants. “Gasoline cars are slowly disappearing.” Technicians of that country claim.Ethanol is obtained from maize in America. Germany is the largest producer of biodiesel in Europe. Along with India other 30 countries are trying to produce ethanol from various plants. Ethanol can be produced from the plants like coconut, soyabean, groundnut, palm, grapes and beetroot.The most important thing is that conventional car engines can be run on bio-fuel. Apart from this, the proper mixture of ethanol in gasoline of diesel can be used as fuel. The conventional diesel engine can run better in 20% bio-fuel. It means there is no need to change the vehicle engines for bio-fuel. Its speciality is that Boi-fuel does not emit carbon-dioxide.Nature take crores of years to produce crude-oil, instead the bio-fuel is obtained from the plants and vegetation. Bio-fuel not only emits the low carbon-dioxide but also does not emit the toxic gases like nitrogen oxide. The production of bio-fuel will be depending on the growth capacity of the plants and availability of land for the plantation. Apart from this production of bio-fuel will be possible from the various types of waste. Which of the following statements are correct?(a) Conventional car engines can be run on bio-fuel.(b) Gasoline cars are disappearing.(c) Pollution minimize due to Bio-fuels.(d) No change of vehicle engines due to Bio-fuel.
8
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Bio-fuelHenry Ford and Rudolf Diesel these two persons made revolution in motor care industry. They expected that their motor car should be run on fuel obtained from plants, but in those days crude oil was the cheapest and won the competition. Petrol became popular and dream of Henry Ford and Rudolf Diesel shattered. After a century the will of Henry Ford and Rudolf Diesel is about to fulfill. Presently the hike in the petroleum opens the channel for bio-fuel. Slowly the use of bio-fuel in cars, trucks and aeroplanes is becoming popular.Brazil took lead in the bio-fuel. At present there are more than four hundred ethanol production centres in that country, that ethanol produced only from sugarcane. They do not use the pure gasoline but mixed 25% ethanol in it. In future, only ethanol consuming vehicles will be manufactured in that country. More and more land is used for the plantation of sugarcane and ethanol producing plants. “Gasoline cars are slowly disappearing.” Technicians of that country claim.Ethanol is obtained from maize in America. Germany is the largest producer of biodiesel in Europe. Along with India other 30 countries are trying to produce ethanol from various plants. Ethanol can be produced from the plants like coconut, soyabean, groundnut, palm, grapes and beetroot.The most important thing is that conventional car engines can be run on bio-fuel. Apart from this, the proper mixture of ethanol in gasoline of diesel can be used as fuel. The conventional diesel engine can run better in 20% bio-fuel. It means there is no need to change the vehicle engines for bio-fuel. Its speciality is that Boi-fuel does not emit carbon-dioxide.Nature take crores of years to produce crude-oil, instead the bio-fuel is obtained from the plants and vegetation. Bio-fuel not only emits the low carbon-dioxide but also does not emit the toxic gases like nitrogen oxide. The production of bio-fuel will be depending on the growth capacity of the plants and availability of land for the plantation. Apart from this production of bio-fuel will be possible from the various types of waste. Use of which of the following source of energy in motor cars shattered dream of Ford and Diesel?
9
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Bio-fuelHenry Ford and Rudolf Diesel these two persons made revolution in motor care industry. They expected that their motor car should be run on fuel obtained from plants, but in those days crude oil was the cheapest and won the competition. Petrol became popular and dream of Henry Ford and Rudolf Diesel shattered. After a century the will of Henry Ford and Rudolf Diesel is about to fulfill. Presently the hike in the petroleum opens the channel for bio-fuel. Slowly the use of bio-fuel in cars, trucks and aeroplanes is becoming popular.Brazil took lead in the bio-fuel. At present there are more than four hundred ethanol production centres in that country, that ethanol produced only from sugarcane. They do not use the pure gasoline but mixed 25% ethanol in it. In future, only ethanol consuming vehicles will be manufactured in that country. More and more land is used for the plantation of sugarcane and ethanol producing plants. “Gasoline cars are slowly disappearing.” Technicians of that country claim.Ethanol is obtained from maize in America. Germany is the largest producer of biodiesel in Europe. Along with India other 30 countries are trying to produce ethanol from various plants. Ethanol can be produced from the plants like coconut, soyabean, groundnut, palm, grapes and beetroot.The most important thing is that conventional car engines can be run on bio-fuel. Apart from this, the proper mixture of ethanol in gasoline of diesel can be used as fuel. The conventional diesel engine can run better in 20% bio-fuel. It means there is no need to change the vehicle engines for bio-fuel. Its speciality is that Boi-fuel does not emit carbon-dioxide.Nature take crores of years to produce crude-oil, instead the bio-fuel is obtained from the plants and vegetation. Bio-fuel not only emits the low carbon-dioxide but also does not emit the toxic gases like nitrogen oxide. The production of bio-fuel will be depending on the growth capacity of the plants and availability of land for the plantation. Apart from this production of bio-fuel will be possible from the various types of waste. Choose the correct alternative from Statememt and Conclusion given below :Statement: Bio-fuel is alternative to crude oil.Conclusion: (A): Crude oil takes crores of years to produce.(B): Due to crude oil, toxic gases will be created.
10
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Bio-fuelHenry Ford and Rudolf Diesel these two persons made revolution in motor care industry. They expected that their motor car should be run on fuel obtained from plants, but in those days crude oil was the cheapest and won the competition. Petrol became popular and dream of Henry Ford and Rudolf Diesel shattered. After a century the will of Henry Ford and Rudolf Diesel is about to fulfill. Presently the hike in the petroleum opens the channel for bio-fuel. Slowly the use of bio-fuel in cars, trucks and aeroplanes is becoming popular.Brazil took lead in the bio-fuel. At present there are more than four hundred ethanol production centres in that country, that ethanol produced only from sugarcane. They do not use the pure gasoline but mixed 25% ethanol in it. In future, only ethanol consuming vehicles will be manufactured in that country. More and more land is used for the plantation of sugarcane and ethanol producing plants. “Gasoline cars are slowly disappearing.” Technicians of that country claim.Ethanol is obtained from maize in America. Germany is the largest producer of biodiesel in Europe. Along with India other 30 countries are trying to produce ethanol from various plants. Ethanol can be produced from the plants like coconut, soyabean, groundnut, palm, grapes and beetroot.The most important thing is that conventional car engines can be run on bio-fuel. Apart from this, the proper mixture of ethanol in gasoline of diesel can be used as fuel. The conventional diesel engine can run better in 20% bio-fuel. It means there is no need to change the vehicle engines for bio-fuel. Its speciality is that Boi-fuel does not emit carbon-dioxide.Nature take crores of years to produce crude-oil, instead the bio-fuel is obtained from the plants and vegetation. Bio-fuel not only emits the low carbon-dioxide but also does not emit the toxic gases like nitrogen oxide. The production of bio-fuel will be depending on the growth capacity of the plants and availability of land for the plantation. Apart from this production of bio-fuel will be possible from the various types of waste. Which of the following statement are correct ?(a) Brazil took lead in the bio-fuel production.(b) Ethanol is obtained from sugarcane in America.(c) Germany is the largest producer of biodiesel in Europe.
11
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Of Force, Criminal Force and Assult349 Force – A person is said to use force to another if he causes motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion to that other, or if he causes to any substance such motion, or change of motion, or cessation of motion as brings that substance into contact with any part of that other’s body, or with anything which that other is wearing or carrying, or with anything so situalted that such contact affects that other’s sense of feeling.Provided that the person causing the motion, or change of motion, or cessation of motion, causes that motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion in one of the three ways hereinafter described.First - By his own bodily power.Secondly - By disposing any substace in such a manner that th motion or change or cessation of moton takes place without any further act on his part, or on the part of any other person.Thirdly – By inducing any animal to move, to change its motion, or to cease to move.350. Criminal force – Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other.351. Assault – Whoever makes any gesture, or any preparation intending or knowing it to be likely that such gesture or preparation will cause any person present to apprehend that he who makes that gesture or preparation is about to use criminal force to that person, is said to commit an assault.Explanation : Mere words do not amount to an assault. But the words which a person uses may give to his gestures of preparation such a meaning as may make those gestures or preparations amount to an assault. “A” intentionally pushes against “Y” in the street. “A” has done so without “Y’s” consent, intending to cause injury to “Y”. The act of “A” is ______ .
12
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Of Force, Criminal Force and Assult349 Force – A person is said to use force to another if he causes motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion to that other, or if he causes to any substance such motion, or change of motion, or cessation of motion as brings that substance into contact with any part of that other’s body, or with anything which that other is wearing or carrying, or with anything so situalted that such contact affects that other’s sense of feeling.Provided that the person causing the motion, or change of motion, or cessation of motion, causes that motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion in one of the three ways hereinafter described.First - By his own bodily power.Secondly - By disposing any substace in such a manner that th motion or change or cessation of moton takes place without any further act on his part, or on the part of any other person.Thirdly – By inducing any animal to move, to change its motion, or to cease to move.350. Criminal force – Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other.351. Assault – Whoever makes any gesture, or any preparation intending or knowing it to be likely that such gesture or preparation will cause any person present to apprehend that he who makes that gesture or preparation is about to use criminal force to that person, is said to commit an assault.Explanation : Mere words do not amount to an assault. But the words which a person uses may give to his gestures of preparation such a meaning as may make those gestures or preparations amount to an assault. “Force” includes –(a) Use of own bodily power.(b) By disposing any substance in such a manner that the motion or change or cessation of motion takes place without any further act on his part or on the part of any other person.(c) By not inducing any animal to move, to change its motion, or to cease to move.
13
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Of Force, Criminal Force and Assult349 Force – A person is said to use force to another if he causes motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion to that other, or if he causes to any substance such motion, or change of motion, or cessation of motion as brings that substance into contact with any part of that other’s body, or with anything which that other is wearing or carrying, or with anything so situalted that such contact affects that other’s sense of feeling.Provided that the person causing the motion, or change of motion, or cessation of motion, causes that motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion in one of the three ways hereinafter described.First - By his own bodily power.Secondly - By disposing any substace in such a manner that th motion or change or cessation of moton takes place without any further act on his part, or on the part of any other person.Thirdly – By inducing any animal to move, to change its motion, or to cease to move.350. Criminal force – Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other.351. Assault – Whoever makes any gesture, or any preparation intending or knowing it to be likely that such gesture or preparation will cause any person present to apprehend that he who makes that gesture or preparation is about to use criminal force to that person, is said to commit an assault.Explanation : Mere words do not amount to an assault. But the words which a person uses may give to his gestures of preparation such a meaning as may make those gestures or preparations amount to an assault. “Y” is bathing. “A” without the consent of “Y” pours into the bath water which he knows to be boiling with ill intention, “A” has committed _______ .
14
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Of Force, Criminal Force and Assult349 Force – A person is said to use force to another if he causes motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion to that other, or if he causes to any substance such motion, or change of motion, or cessation of motion as brings that substance into contact with any part of that other’s body, or with anything which that other is wearing or carrying, or with anything so situalted that such contact affects that other’s sense of feeling.Provided that the person causing the motion, or change of motion, or cessation of motion, causes that motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion in one of the three ways hereinafter described.First - By his own bodily power.Secondly - By disposing any substace in such a manner that th motion or change or cessation of moton takes place without any further act on his part, or on the part of any other person.Thirdly – By inducing any animal to move, to change its motion, or to cease to move.350. Criminal force – Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other.351. Assault – Whoever makes any gesture, or any preparation intending or knowing it to be likely that such gesture or preparation will cause any person present to apprehend that he who makes that gesture or preparation is about to use criminal force to that person, is said to commit an assault.Explanation : Mere words do not amount to an assault. But the words which a person uses may give to his gestures of preparation such a meaning as may make those gestures or preparations amount to an assault. Among the following statement/s in relation to the paragraph given, is/ are correct.(a) “A” says to “Y” that “I will give you a beating” – this act amounts to Assault.(b) “A” intentionally pulls up a woman’s veil. “A” does so without her consent knowing it to be likely that he may thereby frighten or annoy her. “A” has used criminal force to her.
15
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Of Force, Criminal Force and Assult349 Force – A person is said to use force to another if he causes motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion to that other, or if he causes to any substance such motion, or change of motion, or cessation of motion as brings that substance into contact with any part of that other’s body, or with anything which that other is wearing or carrying, or with anything so situalted that such contact affects that other’s sense of feeling.Provided that the person causing the motion, or change of motion, or cessation of motion, causes that motion, change of motion, or cessation of motion in one of the three ways hereinafter described.First - By his own bodily power.Secondly - By disposing any substace in such a manner that th motion or change or cessation of moton takes place without any further act on his part, or on the part of any other person.Thirdly – By inducing any animal to move, to change its motion, or to cease to move.350. Criminal force – Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other.351. Assault – Whoever makes any gesture, or any preparation intending or knowing it to be likely that such gesture or preparation will cause any person present to apprehend that he who makes that gesture or preparation is about to use criminal force to that person, is said to commit an assault.Explanation : Mere words do not amount to an assault. But the words which a person uses may give to his gestures of preparation such a meaning as may make those gestures or preparations amount to an assault. “A” begins to unloose the muzzle of a ferocious dog, intending that he may there by cause “Y” to believe that he is about to cause the dog to attack “Y”, “A” has committed _______ .
16
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Hurdles in PM Kisan Scheme.The Modi government’s cash-for-farmer programme has been able to benefit only half of the 140 million farmers targetd in 2019-20 due to implementation hurdles, according o figures presented in Parliament. The next disbursal, now due, is likely to leave out those who have not been abe to link their bank accounts with Aadhaar, the universal 12-digit biometric identity number.Under PM-Kisan, the government provides income support of Rs. 6,000 a year to farmers with a valid enrolment, paid in three equal cash transfers of RS. 2,000 –one every four months. It was launched on 24 February 2019, when the first installment was paid.At the current rate of expansion, the government is unlikely to spend the entire Rs. 75,000 crore budgeted for 2019-20. As on October 21, 2019, the government has spent Rs. 32,577 crore, or 43% of this.Aadhaar-based enrolment and cash transfers, slow internet connections in many rural centres and messy land records have slowed the programme, the farm ministry told a parliamentary panel this month.Cash transfer under the programme take place every four months : December to March, April to July and August to November. In the first installment period (December) 2018 to March 2019), nearly 70.2 million farmers received a total of Rs. 14,055 crore. In the second tranche (April to july 2019), only 59.2 million were paid a total amount of Rs. 11,845 core. The third installment saw 33.3 million farmers benefiting, with a payout Rs. 6.677 crore.There’s a reason those numbers look out of place. After all, if 70.2 million farmers received the first installment, why did only 59.2 receive a second installment and only 33.3 million a third ? The agriculture ministr counts the first tranche paid to a farmer, even if it was paid for the second period due to late enrolment, as the ‘first installment paid.’ This means even if a farmer enrolled in the second period (April to July 2019) and got his installment for this period as his first ever cash transfer, he will be counted among those receiving the first installment (December 2018 to March 2019). This inflates the total number of farmers, as shown above.In all of the targeted 140 million farmers, nearly 71 million farmers have so far received the payouts, as the ministry noted before the parliamentary panel. “I would like to make it clear that the total number of farmers who have got the benefit is right now 7,17,42,959,” a ministry official said in the report to ParliamentThat leave another 69 million to be targeted by March. Based on these, 33.3 million farmers benefited from the scheme between December 2018 and March 2019 (they have received three installments), with an additional 25.9 million benefited from it between April and July (they have received two), and an additional 11 between August and November (they have received only one).According to the scheme’s design, farmers registered for the scheme in the first stage would have received all three installments released so far since the start of the scheme. Farmers who registered during the second period would not have receives the first installment but would have received the next two, because the benefits are not retrospective. In the first installment of the PM-Kisan scheme between December 2018 to March 2019, cash transfer to farmers was worth rupess :
17
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Hurdles in PM Kisan Scheme.The Modi government’s cash-for-farmer programme has been able to benefit only half of the 140 million farmers targetd in 2019-20 due to implementation hurdles, according o figures presented in Parliament. The next disbursal, now due, is likely to leave out those who have not been abe to link their bank accounts with Aadhaar, the universal 12-digit biometric identity number.Under PM-Kisan, the government provides income support of Rs. 6,000 a year to farmers with a valid enrolment, paid in three equal cash transfers of RS. 2,000 –one every four months. It was launched on 24 February 2019, when the first installment was paid.At the current rate of expansion, the government is unlikely to spend the entire Rs. 75,000 crore budgeted for 2019-20. As on October 21, 2019, the government has spent Rs. 32,577 crore, or 43% of this.Aadhaar-based enrolment and cash transfers, slow internet connections in many rural centres and messy land records have slowed the programme, the farm ministry told a parliamentary panel this month.Cash transfer under the programme take place every four months : December to March, April to July and August to November. In the first installment period (December) 2018 to March 2019), nearly 70.2 million farmers received a total of Rs. 14,055 crore. In the second tranche (April to july 2019), only 59.2 million were paid a total amount of Rs. 11,845 core. The third installment saw 33.3 million farmers benefiting, with a payout Rs. 6.677 crore.There’s a reason those numbers look out of place. After all, if 70.2 million farmers received the first installment, why did only 59.2 receive a second installment and only 33.3 million a third ? The agriculture ministr counts the first tranche paid to a farmer, even if it was paid for the second period due to late enrolment, as the ‘first installment paid.’ This means even if a farmer enrolled in the second period (April to July 2019) and got his installment for this period as his first ever cash transfer, he will be counted among those receiving the first installment (December 2018 to March 2019). This inflates the total number of farmers, as shown above.In all of the targeted 140 million farmers, nearly 71 million farmers have so far received the payouts, as the ministry noted before the parliamentary panel. “I would like to make it clear that the total number of farmers who have got the benefit is right now 7,17,42,959,” a ministry official said in the report to ParliamentThat leave another 69 million to be targeted by March. Based on these, 33.3 million farmers benefited from the scheme between December 2018 and March 2019 (they have received three installments), with an additional 25.9 million benefited from it between April and July (they have received two), and an additional 11 between August and November (they have received only one).According to the scheme’s design, farmers registered for the scheme in the first stage would have received all three installments released so far since the start of the scheme. Farmers who registered during the second period would not have receives the first installment but would have received the next two, because the benefits are not retrospective. The purpose of the scheme mentioned in the passage is :(a) Aadhaar registration of farmers.(b) Provision of internet to farmers.(c) Raising income level of farmers.(d) Update of land records.
18
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Hurdles in PM Kisan Scheme.The Modi government’s cash-for-farmer programme has been able to benefit only half of the 140 million farmers targetd in 2019-20 due to implementation hurdles, according o figures presented in Parliament. The next disbursal, now due, is likely to leave out those who have not been abe to link their bank accounts with Aadhaar, the universal 12-digit biometric identity number.Under PM-Kisan, the government provides income support of Rs. 6,000 a year to farmers with a valid enrolment, paid in three equal cash transfers of RS. 2,000 –one every four months. It was launched on 24 February 2019, when the first installment was paid.At the current rate of expansion, the government is unlikely to spend the entire Rs. 75,000 crore budgeted for 2019-20. As on October 21, 2019, the government has spent Rs. 32,577 crore, or 43% of this.Aadhaar-based enrolment and cash transfers, slow internet connections in many rural centres and messy land records have slowed the programme, the farm ministry told a parliamentary panel this month.Cash transfer under the programme take place every four months : December to March, April to July and August to November. In the first installment period (December) 2018 to March 2019), nearly 70.2 million farmers received a total of Rs. 14,055 crore. In the second tranche (April to july 2019), only 59.2 million were paid a total amount of Rs. 11,845 core. The third installment saw 33.3 million farmers benefiting, with a payout Rs. 6.677 crore.There’s a reason those numbers look out of place. After all, if 70.2 million farmers received the first installment, why did only 59.2 receive a second installment and only 33.3 million a third ? The agriculture ministr counts the first tranche paid to a farmer, even if it was paid for the second period due to late enrolment, as the ‘first installment paid.’ This means even if a farmer enrolled in the second period (April to July 2019) and got his installment for this period as his first ever cash transfer, he will be counted among those receiving the first installment (December 2018 to March 2019). This inflates the total number of farmers, as shown above.In all of the targeted 140 million farmers, nearly 71 million farmers have so far received the payouts, as the ministry noted before the parliamentary panel. “I would like to make it clear that the total number of farmers who have got the benefit is right now 7,17,42,959,” a ministry official said in the report to ParliamentThat leave another 69 million to be targeted by March. Based on these, 33.3 million farmers benefited from the scheme between December 2018 and March 2019 (they have received three installments), with an additional 25.9 million benefited from it between April and July (they have received two), and an additional 11 between August and November (they have received only one).According to the scheme’s design, farmers registered for the scheme in the first stage would have received all three installments released so far since the start of the scheme. Farmers who registered during the second period would not have receives the first installment but would have received the next two, because the benefits are not retrospective. Consider the following statements:(a) Under PM-Kisan, the government provides income support of Rs. 6,000 in a year.(b) This income support is released in installments.
19
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Hurdles in PM Kisan Scheme.The Modi government’s cash-for-farmer programme has been able to benefit only half of the 140 million farmers targetd in 2019-20 due to implementation hurdles, according o figures presented in Parliament. The next disbursal, now due, is likely to leave out those who have not been abe to link their bank accounts with Aadhaar, the universal 12-digit biometric identity number.Under PM-Kisan, the government provides income support of Rs. 6,000 a year to farmers with a valid enrolment, paid in three equal cash transfers of RS. 2,000 –one every four months. It was launched on 24 February 2019, when the first installment was paid.At the current rate of expansion, the government is unlikely to spend the entire Rs. 75,000 crore budgeted for 2019-20. As on October 21, 2019, the government has spent Rs. 32,577 crore, or 43% of this.Aadhaar-based enrolment and cash transfers, slow internet connections in many rural centres and messy land records have slowed the programme, the farm ministry told a parliamentary panel this month.Cash transfer under the programme take place every four months : December to March, April to July and August to November. In the first installment period (December) 2018 to March 2019), nearly 70.2 million farmers received a total of Rs. 14,055 crore. In the second tranche (April to july 2019), only 59.2 million were paid a total amount of Rs. 11,845 core. The third installment saw 33.3 million farmers benefiting, with a payout Rs. 6.677 crore.There’s a reason those numbers look out of place. After all, if 70.2 million farmers received the first installment, why did only 59.2 receive a second installment and only 33.3 million a third ? The agriculture ministr counts the first tranche paid to a farmer, even if it was paid for the second period due to late enrolment, as the ‘first installment paid.’ This means even if a farmer enrolled in the second period (April to July 2019) and got his installment for this period as his first ever cash transfer, he will be counted among those receiving the first installment (December 2018 to March 2019). This inflates the total number of farmers, as shown above.In all of the targeted 140 million farmers, nearly 71 million farmers have so far received the payouts, as the ministry noted before the parliamentary panel. “I would like to make it clear that the total number of farmers who have got the benefit is right now 7,17,42,959,” a ministry official said in the report to ParliamentThat leave another 69 million to be targeted by March. Based on these, 33.3 million farmers benefited from the scheme between December 2018 and March 2019 (they have received three installments), with an additional 25.9 million benefited from it between April and July (they have received two), and an additional 11 between August and November (they have received only one).According to the scheme’s design, farmers registered for the scheme in the first stage would have received all three installments released so far since the start of the scheme. Farmers who registered during the second period would not have receives the first installment but would have received the next two, because the benefits are not retrospective. Consider the following statements:(a) PM-Kisan’s implementation has basic lacunae.(b) Effective linking of Aadhaar-land records is needed.
20
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Hurdles in PM Kisan Scheme.The Modi government’s cash-for-farmer programme has been able to benefit only half of the 140 million farmers targetd in 2019-20 due to implementation hurdles, according o figures presented in Parliament. The next disbursal, now due, is likely to leave out those who have not been abe to link their bank accounts with Aadhaar, the universal 12-digit biometric identity number.Under PM-Kisan, the government provides income support of Rs. 6,000 a year to farmers with a valid enrolment, paid in three equal cash transfers of RS. 2,000 –one every four months. It was launched on 24 February 2019, when the first installment was paid.At the current rate of expansion, the government is unlikely to spend the entire Rs. 75,000 crore budgeted for 2019-20. As on October 21, 2019, the government has spent Rs. 32,577 crore, or 43% of this.Aadhaar-based enrolment and cash transfers, slow internet connections in many rural centres and messy land records have slowed the programme, the farm ministry told a parliamentary panel this month.Cash transfer under the programme take place every four months : December to March, April to July and August to November. In the first installment period (December) 2018 to March 2019), nearly 70.2 million farmers received a total of Rs. 14,055 crore. In the second tranche (April to july 2019), only 59.2 million were paid a total amount of Rs. 11,845 core. The third installment saw 33.3 million farmers benefiting, with a payout Rs. 6.677 crore.There’s a reason those numbers look out of place. After all, if 70.2 million farmers received the first installment, why did only 59.2 receive a second installment and only 33.3 million a third ? The agriculture ministr counts the first tranche paid to a farmer, even if it was paid for the second period due to late enrolment, as the ‘first installment paid.’ This means even if a farmer enrolled in the second period (April to July 2019) and got his installment for this period as his first ever cash transfer, he will be counted among those receiving the first installment (December 2018 to March 2019). This inflates the total number of farmers, as shown above.In all of the targeted 140 million farmers, nearly 71 million farmers have so far received the payouts, as the ministry noted before the parliamentary panel. “I would like to make it clear that the total number of farmers who have got the benefit is right now 7,17,42,959,” a ministry official said in the report to ParliamentThat leave another 69 million to be targeted by March. Based on these, 33.3 million farmers benefited from the scheme between December 2018 and March 2019 (they have received three installments), with an additional 25.9 million benefited from it between April and July (they have received two), and an additional 11 between August and November (they have received only one).According to the scheme’s design, farmers registered for the scheme in the first stage would have received all three installments released so far since the start of the scheme. Farmers who registered during the second period would not have receives the first installment but would have received the next two, because the benefits are not retrospective. PM-KISSAN Scheme has these implementation hurdles:(a) Aadhaar based registration(b) Incomplete land records(c) Inadequate internet connectivity
21
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Physics PassageThe general motion of a massive object under the influence of the Earth’s gravitational force can be solved in closed form using Newton’s second law. The gravitational force is given by :Where, G is he universal gravitational constant, m is the mass of the object, Me is the mass of the Earth and R is the distance of the object from the center of the Earth. One result of this analysis is that Kepler’s laws can be derived for satellites orbiting the Earth. These three laws were originally discovered by Johannes Kepler (1571-1630 based on observations of the motion of the planets about the Sun.They are as follows :(I) All satellites move in elliptical orbits with the Earth at one focus.(II) A line that connects a satellite to the center of the Earth sweeps out equal areas in equal times.(III) The square of the period of any satellite is proportional to the cube of the semimajor axis of its orbit.For objects near the surface of the Earth, a great simplification in the mathemeatics occurs by approximating the gravitational force to be a constant. Let R = Re+h, where Re is the radius of the Earth, h is distance of the object from earth surface. The gravitational force can now be written as :Which is approximately equal to when h<Which of the following expression shows how the acceleration due to gravit depends on the height of an object above the surface of the Earth?
22
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Physics PassageThe general motion of a massive object under the influence of the Earth’s gravitational force can be solved in closed form using Newton’s second law. The gravitational force is given by :Where, G is he universal gravitational constant, m is the mass of the object, Me is the mass of the Earth and R is the distance of the object from the center of the Earth. One result of this analysis is that Kepler’s laws can be derived for satellites orbiting the Earth. These three laws were originally discovered by Johannes Kepler (1571-1630 based on observations of the motion of the planets about the Sun.They are as follows :(I) All satellites move in elliptical orbits with the Earth at one focus.(II) A line that connects a satellite to the center of the Earth sweeps out equal areas in equal times.(III) The square of the period of any satellite is proportional to the cube of the semimajor axis of its orbit.For objects near the surface of the Earth, a great simplification in the mathemeatics occurs by approximating the gravitational force to be a constant. Let R = Re+h, where Re is the radius of the Earth, h is distance of the object from earth surface. The gravitational force can now be written as :Which is approximately equal to when h<The amount of energy needed to move a rocket having mass m from the surface of the Earth to a distance R from the Earth’s center is E = What is the minimum velocity, the rocket must have in order to completely escape the Earth’s gravitational field ?
23
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Physics PassageThe general motion of a massive object under the influence of the Earth’s gravitational force can be solved in closed form using Newton’s second law. The gravitational force is given by :Where, G is he universal gravitational constant, m is the mass of the object, Me is the mass of the Earth and R is the distance of the object from the center of the Earth. One result of this analysis is that Kepler’s laws can be derived for satellites orbiting the Earth. These three laws were originally discovered by Johannes Kepler (1571-1630 based on observations of the motion of the planets about the Sun.They are as follows :(I) All satellites move in elliptical orbits with the Earth at one focus.(II) A line that connects a satellite to the center of the Earth sweeps out equal areas in equal times.(III) The square of the period of any satellite is proportional to the cube of the semimajor axis of its orbit.For objects near the surface of the Earth, a great simplification in the mathemeatics occurs by approximating the gravitational force to be a constant. Let R = Re+h, where Re is the radius of the Earth, h is distance of the object from earth surface. The gravitational force can now be written as :Which is approximately equal to when h<Consider a satellite in circular orbit around the Earth at a distance R from the Earth’s center. The area that the satellite sweeps out as it moves through an angle is given by A = R2/2. Kepler’s second law implies that the time that it takes for the satellite to move through 2 is:
24
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Physics PassageThe general motion of a massive object under the influence of the Earth’s gravitational force can be solved in closed form using Newton’s second law. The gravitational force is given by :Where, G is he universal gravitational constant, m is the mass of the object, Me is the mass of the Earth and R is the distance of the object from the center of the Earth. One result of this analysis is that Kepler’s laws can be derived for satellites orbiting the Earth. These three laws were originally discovered by Johannes Kepler (1571-1630 based on observations of the motion of the planets about the Sun.They are as follows :(I) All satellites move in elliptical orbits with the Earth at one focus.(II) A line that connects a satellite to the center of the Earth sweeps out equal areas in equal times.(III) The square of the period of any satellite is proportional to the cube of the semimajor axis of its orbit.For objects near the surface of the Earth, a great simplification in the mathemeatics occurs by approximating the gravitational force to be a constant. Let R = Re+h, where Re is the radius of the Earth, h is distance of the object from earth surface. The gravitational force can now be written as :Which is approximately equal to when h<A satellite of mass m is in circular orbit around the Earth at a distance R from the Earth’s center. If R is increased by a factor of 4, then the period of the orbit will be:
25
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Physics PassageThe general motion of a massive object under the influence of the Earth’s gravitational force can be solved in closed form using Newton’s second law. The gravitational force is given by :Where, G is he universal gravitational constant, m is the mass of the object, Me is the mass of the Earth and R is the distance of the object from the center of the Earth. One result of this analysis is that Kepler’s laws can be derived for satellites orbiting the Earth. These three laws were originally discovered by Johannes Kepler (1571-1630 based on observations of the motion of the planets about the Sun.They are as follows :(I) All satellites move in elliptical orbits with the Earth at one focus.(II) A line that connects a satellite to the center of the Earth sweeps out equal areas in equal times.(III) The square of the period of any satellite is proportional to the cube of the semimajor axis of its orbit.For objects near the surface of the Earth, a great simplification in the mathemeatics occurs by approximating the gravitational force to be a constant. Let R = Re+h, where Re is the radius of the Earth, h is distance of the object from earth surface. The gravitational force can now be written as :Which is approximately equal to when h<Two balls of unequal mass are dropped from the same height. If the gravitational force is assumed to be constant, then the theory predicts that they will hit the Earth’s surface at the same time. If the actual force is used instead, then the theory predicts:
26
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Plant kingdom includes algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms. Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, thalloid, autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms. Depending on the type of pigment possessed and the type of stored food, algae are classified into three classes, namely Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceaae. Algae usually reproduce vegetative by fragmentation, asexually by formation of different types of spores and sexually by formation of gametes which may show isogamy, anisogamy or oogamy.Bryophytes are plants which can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction. Their plant body is more differentiated than that of algae. It is thallus-like and prostrate or erect and attached to the substratum by rhizoids. They possess root-like, leaf-like and stem-like structures. The bryophytes are divided into liverworts and mosses. The plant body of liverworts is thalloid and dorsiventral whereas mosses have upright, slender axes bearing spirally arranged leaves. The main plant body of a bryophyte is gamete-producing and a called a gametophyte. It bears the male sex organs called antheridia and female sex organs called archegonia. The male and female gametes produced fuse to form zygote which produces a multicellular body called a saprophyte. It produces haploid spores. The spores germinate to from gametophytes.In pteridophytes the main plant is a sporophyte which is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves. These organs possess well-differentiated vascular tissues. The sporophytes bear sporangia which produce spores. The spores germinate o form gametophytes which require cool, damp. Places o grow. The gametophytes bear male and female sex organs called antheridia and archegonia, respectively. Water is required for transfer of male gametes to archegonium where zygote is formed after fertilization. The zygote produces a sporophyte.The gymnosperms are the plants in which ovule are not enclosed b any ovary wall. After fertlisation the seeds remain exposed and herefore hese plants are called naked-seeded plants. The gymnosperms produce microspores and megaspores which are produced in microsporangia and megasporangia borne on the sporophylls. The sporophylls – microsporophylls and megasporophylls – are arranged spirally on axis to form male and female cones. Respectively. The pollen grain germinates and pollen tube releases the male gamete into the ovule, where it fuses with the egg cell in archegonia. Following fertilisation, the zygote develops into embryo and the ovules into seeds. Chlorophyll pigmen is present in which of the following plants ?(a) Algae(b) Bryophytes(c) Pteridophytes(d) Gymnosperms
27
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Plant kingdom includes algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms. Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, thalloid, autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms. Depending on the type of pigment possessed and the type of stored food, algae are classified into three classes, namely Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceaae. Algae usually reproduce vegetative by fragmentation, asexually by formation of different types of spores and sexually by formation of gametes which may show isogamy, anisogamy or oogamy.Bryophytes are plants which can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction. Their plant body is more differentiated than that of algae. It is thallus-like and prostrate or erect and attached to the substratum by rhizoids. They possess root-like, leaf-like and stem-like structures. The bryophytes are divided into liverworts and mosses. The plant body of liverworts is thalloid and dorsiventral whereas mosses have upright, slender axes bearing spirally arranged leaves. The main plant body of a bryophyte is gamete-producing and a called a gametophyte. It bears the male sex organs called antheridia and female sex organs called archegonia. The male and female gametes produced fuse to form zygote which produces a multicellular body called a saprophyte. It produces haploid spores. The spores germinate to from gametophytes.In pteridophytes the main plant is a sporophyte which is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves. These organs possess well-differentiated vascular tissues. The sporophytes bear sporangia which produce spores. The spores germinate o form gametophytes which require cool, damp. Places o grow. The gametophytes bear male and female sex organs called antheridia and archegonia, respectively. Water is required for transfer of male gametes to archegonium where zygote is formed after fertilization. The zygote produces a sporophyte.The gymnosperms are the plants in which ovule are not enclosed b any ovary wall. After fertlisation the seeds remain exposed and herefore hese plants are called naked-seeded plants. The gymnosperms produce microspores and megaspores which are produced in microsporangia and megasporangia borne on the sporophylls. The sporophylls – microsporophylls and megasporophylls – are arranged spirally on axis to form male and female cones. Respectively. The pollen grain germinates and pollen tube releases the male gamete into the ovule, where it fuses with the egg cell in archegonia. Following fertilisation, the zygote develops into embryo and the ovules into seeds. Plants having well differentiated vascular bundles; but lacking proper seeds are _______ .
28
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Plant kingdom includes algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms. Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, thalloid, autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms. Depending on the type of pigment possessed and the type of stored food, algae are classified into three classes, namely Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceaae. Algae usually reproduce vegetative by fragmentation, asexually by formation of different types of spores and sexually by formation of gametes which may show isogamy, anisogamy or oogamy.Bryophytes are plants which can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction. Their plant body is more differentiated than that of algae. It is thallus-like and prostrate or erect and attached to the substratum by rhizoids. They possess root-like, leaf-like and stem-like structures. The bryophytes are divided into liverworts and mosses. The plant body of liverworts is thalloid and dorsiventral whereas mosses have upright, slender axes bearing spirally arranged leaves. The main plant body of a bryophyte is gamete-producing and a called a gametophyte. It bears the male sex organs called antheridia and female sex organs called archegonia. The male and female gametes produced fuse to form zygote which produces a multicellular body called a saprophyte. It produces haploid spores. The spores germinate to from gametophytes.In pteridophytes the main plant is a sporophyte which is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves. These organs possess well-differentiated vascular tissues. The sporophytes bear sporangia which produce spores. The spores germinate o form gametophytes which require cool, damp. Places o grow. The gametophytes bear male and female sex organs called antheridia and archegonia, respectively. Water is required for transfer of male gametes to archegonium where zygote is formed after fertilization. The zygote produces a sporophyte.The gymnosperms are the plants in which ovule are not enclosed b any ovary wall. After fertlisation the seeds remain exposed and herefore hese plants are called naked-seeded plants. The gymnosperms produce microspores and megaspores which are produced in microsporangia and megasporangia borne on the sporophylls. The sporophylls – microsporophylls and megasporophylls – are arranged spirally on axis to form male and female cones. Respectively. The pollen grain germinates and pollen tube releases the male gamete into the ovule, where it fuses with the egg cell in archegonia. Following fertilisation, the zygote develops into embryo and the ovules into seeds. In bryophyta, haploid spores are produced in _______ .
29
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Plant kingdom includes algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms. Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, thalloid, autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms. Depending on the type of pigment possessed and the type of stored food, algae are classified into three classes, namely Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceaae. Algae usually reproduce vegetative by fragmentation, asexually by formation of different types of spores and sexually by formation of gametes which may show isogamy, anisogamy or oogamy.Bryophytes are plants which can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction. Their plant body is more differentiated than that of algae. It is thallus-like and prostrate or erect and attached to the substratum by rhizoids. They possess root-like, leaf-like and stem-like structures. The bryophytes are divided into liverworts and mosses. The plant body of liverworts is thalloid and dorsiventral whereas mosses have upright, slender axes bearing spirally arranged leaves. The main plant body of a bryophyte is gamete-producing and a called a gametophyte. It bears the male sex organs called antheridia and female sex organs called archegonia. The male and female gametes produced fuse to form zygote which produces a multicellular body called a saprophyte. It produces haploid spores. The spores germinate to from gametophytes.In pteridophytes the main plant is a sporophyte which is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves. These organs possess well-differentiated vascular tissues. The sporophytes bear sporangia which produce spores. The spores germinate o form gametophytes which require cool, damp. Places o grow. The gametophytes bear male and female sex organs called antheridia and archegonia, respectively. Water is required for transfer of male gametes to archegonium where zygote is formed after fertilization. The zygote produces a sporophyte.The gymnosperms are the plants in which ovule are not enclosed b any ovary wall. After fertlisation the seeds remain exposed and herefore hese plants are called naked-seeded plants. The gymnosperms produce microspores and megaspores which are produced in microsporangia and megasporangia borne on the sporophylls. The sporophylls – microsporophylls and megasporophylls – are arranged spirally on axis to form male and female cones. Respectively. The pollen grain germinates and pollen tube releases the male gamete into the ovule, where it fuses with the egg cell in archegonia. Following fertilisation, the zygote develops into embryo and the ovules into seeds. Algae is dependent upon other living organisms for their food and they have various pigments in them.(a) The above statement is completely correct.(b) The former half of the above statement is correct.(c) The above statement is completely wrong.(d) The former half of the above statement is wrong.
30
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:Plant kingdom includes algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms. Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, thalloid, autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms. Depending on the type of pigment possessed and the type of stored food, algae are classified into three classes, namely Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceaae. Algae usually reproduce vegetative by fragmentation, asexually by formation of different types of spores and sexually by formation of gametes which may show isogamy, anisogamy or oogamy.Bryophytes are plants which can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction. Their plant body is more differentiated than that of algae. It is thallus-like and prostrate or erect and attached to the substratum by rhizoids. They possess root-like, leaf-like and stem-like structures. The bryophytes are divided into liverworts and mosses. The plant body of liverworts is thalloid and dorsiventral whereas mosses have upright, slender axes bearing spirally arranged leaves. The main plant body of a bryophyte is gamete-producing and a called a gametophyte. It bears the male sex organs called antheridia and female sex organs called archegonia. The male and female gametes produced fuse to form zygote which produces a multicellular body called a saprophyte. It produces haploid spores. The spores germinate to from gametophytes.In pteridophytes the main plant is a sporophyte which is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves. These organs possess well-differentiated vascular tissues. The sporophytes bear sporangia which produce spores. The spores germinate o form gametophytes which require cool, damp. Places o grow. The gametophytes bear male and female sex organs called antheridia and archegonia, respectively. Water is required for transfer of male gametes to archegonium where zygote is formed after fertilization. The zygote produces a sporophyte.The gymnosperms are the plants in which ovule are not enclosed b any ovary wall. After fertlisation the seeds remain exposed and herefore hese plants are called naked-seeded plants. The gymnosperms produce microspores and megaspores which are produced in microsporangia and megasporangia borne on the sporophylls. The sporophylls – microsporophylls and megasporophylls – are arranged spirally on axis to form male and female cones. Respectively. The pollen grain germinates and pollen tube releases the male gamete into the ovule, where it fuses with the egg cell in archegonia. Following fertilisation, the zygote develops into embryo and the ovules into seeds. In gymnosperms, microspores are produced in _______ .
31
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:When sewage is dropped on land, the bacteria present in the soil attack on it and convert the content of sewage into plant food. The latter gets utilized by the roots of the plants or crops. The organic matter present in sewage undergoes decomposition by aerobic and non-aerobic bacteria, but it is profitable to provide aerobic conditions for the disposal of sewage by land treatment. The oxygen that is required for aerobic decomposition, is present in different layers of the soil. The CO2 produced as a result of decomposition is given by the soils and in turn, atmospheric oxygen is absorbed. This interchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place by wind movements, difference is temperature and pressure, drainage of soils and many other processes. When sewage is applied on land, the chemical process of oxidation takes place in which organic matter of the sewage is oxidized by bacteria. Filtration is the principal physical action that is involved in the purification of sewage by land treatment. Sewage as it passes through the layers of the soils gives out suspended particles which are retained by the voids of the soil. In presence of sufficient aeration, these particles are oxidized by aerobic bacteria. This physical action mainly depends on the nature of the soil. Most suitable and satisfactory filtration takes place in porous, loamy or sandy soils. The heavy soils such as clay are not very suitable for filtration, while rocky soils are most unsuitable for filtration.The major portion present in sewage is water, and it can be used for irrigation. Sewage also contains nitrogen, potash, phosphate, organic acids etc and so it has a good fertilizer value, because these constituents present in sewage can be directly used by the plants for their growth. In this way, sewage increases the fertility of the soils and also improves the condition of the soil. The type of crop that can be grown, mainly depends on the quality of sewage and health regulations concerning the use of sewage on crops. The sewage is converted into plant food by:(a) Physical action(b) Chemical action(c) Carbon dioxide(d) Bacteria
32
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:When sewage is dropped on land, the bacteria present in the soil attack on it and convert the content of sewage into plant food. The latter gets utilized by the roots of the plants or crops. The organic matter present in sewage undergoes decomposition by aerobic and non-aerobic bacteria, but it is profitable to provide aerobic conditions for the disposal of sewage by land treatment. The oxygen that is required for aerobic decomposition, is present in different layers of the soil. The CO2 produced as a result of decomposition is given by the soils and in turn, atmospheric oxygen is absorbed. This interchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place by wind movements, difference is temperature and pressure, drainage of soils and many other processes. When sewage is applied on land, the chemical process of oxidation takes place in which organic matter of the sewage is oxidized by bacteria. Filtration is the principal physical action that is involved in the purification of sewage by land treatment. Sewage as it passes through the layers of the soils gives out suspended particles which are retained by the voids of the soil. In presence of sufficient aeration, these particles are oxidized by aerobic bacteria. This physical action mainly depends on the nature of the soil. Most suitable and satisfactory filtration takes place in porous, loamy or sandy soils. The heavy soils such as clay are not very suitable for filtration, while rocky soils are most unsuitable for filtration.The major portion present in sewage is water, and it can be used for irrigation. Sewage also contains nitrogen, potash, phosphate, organic acids etc and so it has a good fertilizer value, because these constituents present in sewage can be directly used by the plants for their growth. In this way, sewage increases the fertility of the soils and also improves the condition of the soil. The type of crop that can be grown, mainly depends on the quality of sewage and health regulations concerning the use of sewage on crops. The Correct statements from the following are:(a) Filtration is a physical action.(b) The interchange of oxygen produced in soil and atmospheric carbon dioxide is temperature dependent.(c) Sewage increases the fertility of soil.(d) Decomposition of organic matter by bacteria could be aerobic or non-aerpnoc.
33
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:When sewage is dropped on land, the bacteria present in the soil attack on it and convert the content of sewage into plant food. The latter gets utilized by the roots of the plants or crops. The organic matter present in sewage undergoes decomposition by aerobic and non-aerobic bacteria, but it is profitable to provide aerobic conditions for the disposal of sewage by land treatment. The oxygen that is required for aerobic decomposition, is present in different layers of the soil. The CO2 produced as a result of decomposition is given by the soils and in turn, atmospheric oxygen is absorbed. This interchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place by wind movements, difference is temperature and pressure, drainage of soils and many other processes. When sewage is applied on land, the chemical process of oxidation takes place in which organic matter of the sewage is oxidized by bacteria. Filtration is the principal physical action that is involved in the purification of sewage by land treatment. Sewage as it passes through the layers of the soils gives out suspended particles which are retained by the voids of the soil. In presence of sufficient aeration, these particles are oxidized by aerobic bacteria. This physical action mainly depends on the nature of the soil. Most suitable and satisfactory filtration takes place in porous, loamy or sandy soils. The heavy soils such as clay are not very suitable for filtration, while rocky soils are most unsuitable for filtration.The major portion present in sewage is water, and it can be used for irrigation. Sewage also contains nitrogen, potash, phosphate, organic acids etc and so it has a good fertilizer value, because these constituents present in sewage can be directly used by the plants for their growth. In this way, sewage increases the fertility of the soils and also improves the condition of the soil. The type of crop that can be grown, mainly depends on the quality of sewage and health regulations concerning the use of sewage on crops. Which of following are incorrect statements?(a) A non-aerobic decomposition is not preferred over an aerobic decomposition by bacteria.(b) Porous soil is not preferred for filtration.(c) Organic acids present in soil decrease the fertility of soil.(d) Rocky soils are unsuitable for filtration and non-aerobic decomposition.
34
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:When sewage is dropped on land, the bacteria present in the soil attack on it and convert the content of sewage into plant food. The latter gets utilized by the roots of the plants or crops. The organic matter present in sewage undergoes decomposition by aerobic and non-aerobic bacteria, but it is profitable to provide aerobic conditions for the disposal of sewage by land treatment. The oxygen that is required for aerobic decomposition, is present in different layers of the soil. The CO2 produced as a result of decomposition is given by the soils and in turn, atmospheric oxygen is absorbed. This interchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place by wind movements, difference is temperature and pressure, drainage of soils and many other processes. When sewage is applied on land, the chemical process of oxidation takes place in which organic matter of the sewage is oxidized by bacteria. Filtration is the principal physical action that is involved in the purification of sewage by land treatment. Sewage as it passes through the layers of the soils gives out suspended particles which are retained by the voids of the soil. In presence of sufficient aeration, these particles are oxidized by aerobic bacteria. This physical action mainly depends on the nature of the soil. Most suitable and satisfactory filtration takes place in porous, loamy or sandy soils. The heavy soils such as clay are not very suitable for filtration, while rocky soils are most unsuitable for filtration.The major portion present in sewage is water, and it can be used for irrigation. Sewage also contains nitrogen, potash, phosphate, organic acids etc and so it has a good fertilizer value, because these constituents present in sewage can be directly used by the plants for their growth. In this way, sewage increases the fertility of the soils and also improves the condition of the soil. The type of crop that can be grown, mainly depends on the quality of sewage and health regulations concerning the use of sewage on crops. During the aerobic decomposition of sewage, by bacteria _______ .(a) the required oxygen is directly taken from the atmosphere(b) the produced carbon dioxide is interchanged with the atmospheric oxygen(c) the carbon dioxide present in different layers of soil is used
35
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions:When sewage is dropped on land, the bacteria present in the soil attack on it and convert the content of sewage into plant food. The latter gets utilized by the roots of the plants or crops. The organic matter present in sewage undergoes decomposition by aerobic and non-aerobic bacteria, but it is profitable to provide aerobic conditions for the disposal of sewage by land treatment. The oxygen that is required for aerobic decomposition, is present in different layers of the soil. The CO2 produced as a result of decomposition is given by the soils and in turn, atmospheric oxygen is absorbed. This interchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place by wind movements, difference is temperature and pressure, drainage of soils and many other processes. When sewage is applied on land, the chemical process of oxidation takes place in which organic matter of the sewage is oxidized by bacteria. Filtration is the principal physical action that is involved in the purification of sewage by land treatment. Sewage as it passes through the layers of the soils gives out suspended particles which are retained by the voids of the soil. In presence of sufficient aeration, these particles are oxidized by aerobic bacteria. This physical action mainly depends on the nature of the soil. Most suitable and satisfactory filtration takes place in porous, loamy or sandy soils. The heavy soils such as clay are not very suitable for filtration, while rocky soils are most unsuitable for filtration.The major portion present in sewage is water, and it can be used for irrigation. Sewage also contains nitrogen, potash, phosphate, organic acids etc and so it has a good fertilizer value, because these constituents present in sewage can be directly used by the plants for their growth. In this way, sewage increases the fertility of the soils and also improves the condition of the soil. The type of crop that can be grown, mainly depends on the quality of sewage and health regulations concerning the use of sewage on crops. The major portion of sewage is made up of:(a) Organic matter(b) Nitrogen(c) Particulate matter(d) Water
36
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the question:Political education may be defined as the preparation of a citizen to take well informed, responsible and sustained action for participation in the national struggle for the realization of the social-economic objectives of the country. The overriding socio-economic objectives in India are the abolition of poverty and the creation of a modern democratic, secular and socialist society in place of the present traditional, feudal, hierarchical and inegalitarian one.Under British rule, the congress leaders argued that political education was an important part of education and refused to accept the official view that education and politics should not be mixed with one another. But when they came to power in 1947, they almost adopted the British policy and began to talk of education being defiled by politics. ‘Hands off education’ was the call to political parties. But inspite of it, political infiltration into the educational system has greatly increased in the sense that different political parties vie with each other to capture the minds of teachers and students. The wise academicians wanted political support, without political interference. What we have actually received is infinite political interference with little genuine political support. This interference with the education system by political parties for their own ulterior motives is no political education at all; and with the all-round growth of elitism, it is hardly a matter for surprise that real political education within the school system [which really means the creation of a commitment to social transformation] has been even weaker than in the pre-independence period.At the same time, the freedom struggle came to an end and major non-formal agency of political disappeared. The press could and did provide some political education. But it did not utilize the opportunity to the full and the stranglehold of vested interests continued to dominate it. The same can be said of political parties as well as of other institutions and agencies outside the school system which can be expected to provide political education. Most things considered, it appears that we have made no progress in genuine political education in the post independence period and have even sided back in some respects. For instance, the education system has become even more elite-oriented. Patriotism has become the first casualty. Gandhi gave us the courage to oppose the government when it was wrong, in a disciplined fashion and based on principles. He believed the means to be as important as the ends and taught us to work among the poor people for mobilizing and organizing them. Today, we have even lost the fight on basic issues in a disciplined manner because agitation and anarchic politics for individual, group or party aggrandizement has become common. The education system of today continues to support the domination of the privileged groups and domestication of the underprivileged ones. The situation will not change unless we take vigorous steps to provide genuine political education on an adequate scale. This is one of the major educational reforms we need; and if it is not carried out, mere linear expansion of the existing system of formal education will only support the status quo and hamper radical social transformation. What should be the ultimate objective of political education ?
37
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the question:Political education may be defined as the preparation of a citizen to take well informed, responsible and sustained action for participation in the national struggle for the realization of the social-economic objectives of the country. The overriding socio-economic objectives in India are the abolition of poverty and the creation of a modern democratic, secular and socialist society in place of the present traditional, feudal, hierarchical and inegalitarian one.Under British rule, the congress leaders argued that political education was an important part of education and refused to accept the official view that education and politics should not be mixed with one another. But when they came to power in 1947, they almost adopted the British policy and began to talk of education being defiled by politics. ‘Hands off education’ was the call to political parties. But inspite of it, political infiltration into the educational system has greatly increased in the sense that different political parties vie with each other to capture the minds of teachers and students. The wise academicians wanted political support, without political interference. What we have actually received is infinite political interference with little genuine political support. This interference with the education system by political parties for their own ulterior motives is no political education at all; and with the all-round growth of elitism, it is hardly a matter for surprise that real political education within the school system [which really means the creation of a commitment to social transformation] has been even weaker than in the pre-independence period.At the same time, the freedom struggle came to an end and major non-formal agency of political disappeared. The press could and did provide some political education. But it did not utilize the opportunity to the full and the stranglehold of vested interests continued to dominate it. The same can be said of political parties as well as of other institutions and agencies outside the school system which can be expected to provide political education. Most things considered, it appears that we have made no progress in genuine political education in the post independence period and have even sided back in some respects. For instance, the education system has become even more elite-oriented. Patriotism has become the first casualty. Gandhi gave us the courage to oppose the government when it was wrong, in a disciplined fashion and based on principles. He believed the means to be as important as the ends and taught us to work among the poor people for mobilizing and organizing them. Today, we have even lost the fight on basic issues in a disciplined manner because agitation and anarchic politics for individual, group or party aggrandizement has become common. The education system of today continues to support the domination of the privileged groups and domestication of the underprivileged ones. The situation will not change unless we take vigorous steps to provide genuine political education on an adequate scale. This is one of the major educational reforms we need; and if it is not carried out, mere linear expansion of the existing system of formal education will only support the status quo and hamper radical social transformation. How has politics been related to educational institutions after independence?
38
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the question:Political education may be defined as the preparation of a citizen to take well informed, responsible and sustained action for participation in the national struggle for the realization of the social-economic objectives of the country. The overriding socio-economic objectives in India are the abolition of poverty and the creation of a modern democratic, secular and socialist society in place of the present traditional, feudal, hierarchical and inegalitarian one.Under British rule, the congress leaders argued that political education was an important part of education and refused to accept the official view that education and politics should not be mixed with one another. But when they came to power in 1947, they almost adopted the British policy and began to talk of education being defiled by politics. ‘Hands off education’ was the call to political parties. But inspite of it, political infiltration into the educational system has greatly increased in the sense that different political parties vie with each other to capture the minds of teachers and students. The wise academicians wanted political support, without political interference. What we have actually received is infinite political interference with little genuine political support. This interference with the education system by political parties for their own ulterior motives is no political education at all; and with the all-round growth of elitism, it is hardly a matter for surprise that real political education within the school system [which really means the creation of a commitment to social transformation] has been even weaker than in the pre-independence period.At the same time, the freedom struggle came to an end and major non-formal agency of political disappeared. The press could and did provide some political education. But it did not utilize the opportunity to the full and the stranglehold of vested interests continued to dominate it. The same can be said of political parties as well as of other institutions and agencies outside the school system which can be expected to provide political education. Most things considered, it appears that we have made no progress in genuine political education in the post independence period and have even sided back in some respects. For instance, the education system has become even more elite-oriented. Patriotism has become the first casualty. Gandhi gave us the courage to oppose the government when it was wrong, in a disciplined fashion and based on principles. He believed the means to be as important as the ends and taught us to work among the poor people for mobilizing and organizing them. Today, we have even lost the fight on basic issues in a disciplined manner because agitation and anarchic politics for individual, group or party aggrandizement has become common. The education system of today continues to support the domination of the privileged groups and domestication of the underprivileged ones. The situation will not change unless we take vigorous steps to provide genuine political education on an adequate scale. This is one of the major educational reforms we need; and if it is not carried out, mere linear expansion of the existing system of formal education will only support the status quo and hamper radical social transformation. Which is the mojor problem of the present education system?
39
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the question:Political education may be defined as the preparation of a citizen to take well informed, responsible and sustained action for participation in the national struggle for the realization of the social-economic objectives of the country. The overriding socio-economic objectives in India are the abolition of poverty and the creation of a modern democratic, secular and socialist society in place of the present traditional, feudal, hierarchical and inegalitarian one.Under British rule, the congress leaders argued that political education was an important part of education and refused to accept the official view that education and politics should not be mixed with one another. But when they came to power in 1947, they almost adopted the British policy and began to talk of education being defiled by politics. ‘Hands off education’ was the call to political parties. But inspite of it, political infiltration into the educational system has greatly increased in the sense that different political parties vie with each other to capture the minds of teachers and students. The wise academicians wanted political support, without political interference. What we have actually received is infinite political interference with little genuine political support. This interference with the education system by political parties for their own ulterior motives is no political education at all; and with the all-round growth of elitism, it is hardly a matter for surprise that real political education within the school system [which really means the creation of a commitment to social transformation] has been even weaker than in the pre-independence period.At the same time, the freedom struggle came to an end and major non-formal agency of political disappeared. The press could and did provide some political education. But it did not utilize the opportunity to the full and the stranglehold of vested interests continued to dominate it. The same can be said of political parties as well as of other institutions and agencies outside the school system which can be expected to provide political education. Most things considered, it appears that we have made no progress in genuine political education in the post independence period and have even sided back in some respects. For instance, the education system has become even more elite-oriented. Patriotism has become the first casualty. Gandhi gave us the courage to oppose the government when it was wrong, in a disciplined fashion and based on principles. He believed the means to be as important as the ends and taught us to work among the poor people for mobilizing and organizing them. Today, we have even lost the fight on basic issues in a disciplined manner because agitation and anarchic politics for individual, group or party aggrandizement has become common. The education system of today continues to support the domination of the privileged groups and domestication of the underprivileged ones. The situation will not change unless we take vigorous steps to provide genuine political education on an adequate scale. This is one of the major educational reforms we need; and if it is not carried out, mere linear expansion of the existing system of formal education will only support the status quo and hamper radical social transformation. Which of the following statements is not true?
40
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the following passage and answer the question:Political education may be defined as the preparation of a citizen to take well informed, responsible and sustained action for participation in the national struggle for the realization of the social-economic objectives of the country. The overriding socio-economic objectives in India are the abolition of poverty and the creation of a modern democratic, secular and socialist society in place of the present traditional, feudal, hierarchical and inegalitarian one.Under British rule, the congress leaders argued that political education was an important part of education and refused to accept the official view that education and politics should not be mixed with one another. But when they came to power in 1947, they almost adopted the British policy and began to talk of education being defiled by politics. ‘Hands off education’ was the call to political parties. But inspite of it, political infiltration into the educational system has greatly increased in the sense that different political parties vie with each other to capture the minds of teachers and students. The wise academicians wanted political support, without political interference. What we have actually received is infinite political interference with little genuine political support. This interference with the education system by political parties for their own ulterior motives is no political education at all; and with the all-round growth of elitism, it is hardly a matter for surprise that real political education within the school system [which really means the creation of a commitment to social transformation] has been even weaker than in the pre-independence period.At the same time, the freedom struggle came to an end and major non-formal agency of political disappeared. The press could and did provide some political education. But it did not utilize the opportunity to the full and the stranglehold of vested interests continued to dominate it. The same can be said of political parties as well as of other institutions and agencies outside the school system which can be expected to provide political education. Most things considered, it appears that we have made no progress in genuine political education in the post independence period and have even sided back in some respects. For instance, the education system has become even more elite-oriented. Patriotism has become the first casualty. Gandhi gave us the courage to oppose the government when it was wrong, in a disciplined fashion and based on principles. He believed the means to be as important as the ends and taught us to work among the poor people for mobilizing and organizing them. Today, we have even lost the fight on basic issues in a disciplined manner because agitation and anarchic politics for individual, group or party aggrandizement has become common. The education system of today continues to support the domination of the privileged groups and domestication of the underprivileged ones. The situation will not change unless we take vigorous steps to provide genuine political education on an adequate scale. This is one of the major educational reforms we need; and if it is not carried out, mere linear expansion of the existing system of formal education will only support the status quo and hamper radical social transformation. According to the passage, what is the main contribution of Mahatma Gandhi to the field of political education?
41
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
पुढील उतारा वाचून त्यावर आधारित यांची उत्तरे लिहा.माऊलीने पसायदान कशासाठी मागितले आहे? सगळ्या मानवांची प्रकृती हळूहळू संस्कृतीकडे वळावी. लोककल्याणाचा, काहीतरी चांगले घडवायचा मार्ग त्यांना दिसावा म्हणून पसायदान मागितलेले आहे. जावे ते सन्मार्गाकडे जावे, जावे ते आत्मकल्याणाच्या मार्गाकडे जावे, जावे ते सात्त्विकतेच्या मार्गाकडे जावे आणि म्हणावे, 'आमच्या हातून कृत्ये अशी घडोत, आमच्या हातून कर्मे अशी घडोत की ती परोपकारार्थ केलेली असोत' आणि म्हणून आयुष्यामध्ये प्रत्येकाची धडपड सज्जन व्हावे यासाठी असावी. मग आमची प्रकृती कशी असावी? आमचा प्रवृत्तिधर्म कसा असावा? तर प्रसिद्धीपराङ्मुख असावा. तो रावण सारखा कधीही नसावा. तो रामासारखा असावा! तो कृष्णासारखा असावा! तो संतांच्यासारखा असावा! तसा पिंड आपला घडावा म्हणून या प्रार्थना सातत्याने आपण केल्या पाहिजेत. मानवाच्या मनामधे जोपर्यंत अहंकार असतो ना तो अहंकार जोपर्यंत जिरत नाही तोपर्यंत प्रयत्न आवश्यक आहे. एकदा अहंकार जिरला की 'अवघे देणे रघुनाथाचे' हीच संकल्पना. म्हणून मग अहंकार असावा पण ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकाराकडे त्याला झेपावता आले पाहिजे. म्हणून अहंकाराचे चार स्तर आपल्याकडे सांगितले आहेत ना, ते थोडे समजावून घेतले पाहिजेत.ज्याला आपल्या व्यक्तिमत्त्वाचा परिचय नाही त्यांचा अहंकार हा अज्ञानजन्य अहंकार आहे. म्हणजे तो ज्ञानजन्य नाही. पण ज्यांन आपली ओळख पटायल लागली आहे त्यांचा व्यक्तिगत अहंकार आहे. ज्यांना आणखी व्यापक दृष्टी प्राप्त झालेली आहे त्यांचा व्यापक अहंकार आहे. ज्यांना आत्मतत्त्व प्राप्त झाले त्यांचा अहंकार हा ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकारामधे रूपांतरीत झालेला आहे. कारण त्याला ज्ञानाची बैठक प्राप्त झालेली आहे. असा ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार प्राप्त करणे हेच एका दृष्टीने प्रत्येक मानवाच्या आयुष्याचे अंतिम ध्येय आहे. तोच मोक्ष आहे. त्यालाच सायुज्यता असे म्हणतात. 'याचि देही याचि डोळा' परमतत्त्वाचा गोमटा लाभ आपण करून घेतलेला आहे, कारण तिथे ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार प्राप्त झालेला आहे, त्या स्वानंद सुखाची ठेव ही प्रत्येकाला प्राप्त व्हावं अशी प्रार्थना ज्ञानेश्वर महाराजांनी केली आहे. आणि म्हणून त्यागाकडून आणखी वरच्या त्यागाकडे आपल्याला झेपावता आले पाहिजे. आपल्याला स्वर्थत्यागाकडून सामान्य त्यागाकडे, सामान्य त्यागाकडून मध्यम त्यागाकडे, मध्यमाकडून सर्वोच्च त्याग कडे झेपावता आले पाहिजे कारण सगळ्या व्यक्तिमत्त्वाचा पाया जर कोणता असेल तर तो त्यागाचा आहे. आणि हे त्यागाचे लेणे, हे त्यागाचे मोठेपण, या त्यागाची सूक्ष्म भूमिका, या त्यागाचे जीवनमूल्य आम्हाला कुठे मिळेल तर आई-वडिलांच्या सहवासामधे मिळेल. कुटुंब संस्थेमधे मिळेल. हे संस्कार करायला कधीही आळशीपणा करू नका. आपण दूरदर्शन पहात बसाचे आणि मुलांनी मात्र अभ्यास करावा अशी भूमिका चित्तात कधीही ठेवू नका. स्वत: त्यागा म्हणजे मुले अभ्यास करतील, स्वत: ज्ञानेश्वरी म्हणायला बसा म्हणजे मुले बसतील. स्वत: गीता म्हणायला बसा म्हणजे मुले बसतील. स्वतः पसायदान म्हणा मुलां व्याकडून म्हणवून घ्या. जेवढा त्याग कराल ना तितके उंच उंच होत जाल!'अरे ! तू स्वानंद साम्राज्याचा चक्रवर्ती होशील' असे आश्वासन ज्ञानोबांनी दिले आहे. मला सांगा आणखी कुठले आश्वासन द्यायचे ज्ञानेश्वर महाराजांनी? याच्यापेक्षा काय पाहिजे आपल्याला सांगा. जर तुम्हाला स्वानंद साम्राज्याचा चक्रवर्ती व्हायचे असेल तर काय केले पाहिजे? 'ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार' वृत्तीचा स्वीकार केला पाहिजे हेच माऊलीने पसायदानातून सांगितले आहे. अज्ञानजन्य अहंकाराचे लक्षण कोणते?
42
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
पुढील उतारा वाचून त्यावर आधारित यांची उत्तरे लिहा.माऊलीने पसायदान कशासाठी मागितले आहे? सगळ्या मानवांची प्रकृती हळूहळू संस्कृतीकडे वळावी. लोककल्याणाचा, काहीतरी चांगले घडवायचा मार्ग त्यांना दिसावा म्हणून पसायदान मागितलेले आहे. जावे ते सन्मार्गाकडे जावे, जावे ते आत्मकल्याणाच्या मार्गाकडे जावे, जावे ते सात्त्विकतेच्या मार्गाकडे जावे आणि म्हणावे, 'आमच्या हातून कृत्ये अशी घडोत, आमच्या हातून कर्मे अशी घडोत की ती परोपकारार्थ केलेली असोत' आणि म्हणून आयुष्यामध्ये प्रत्येकाची धडपड सज्जन व्हावे यासाठी असावी. मग आमची प्रकृती कशी असावी? आमचा प्रवृत्तिधर्म कसा असावा? तर प्रसिद्धीपराङ्मुख असावा. तो रावण सारखा कधीही नसावा. तो रामासारखा असावा! तो कृष्णासारखा असावा! तो संतांच्यासारखा असावा! तसा पिंड आपला घडावा म्हणून या प्रार्थना सातत्याने आपण केल्या पाहिजेत. मानवाच्या मनामधे जोपर्यंत अहंकार असतो ना तो अहंकार जोपर्यंत जिरत नाही तोपर्यंत प्रयत्न आवश्यक आहे. एकदा अहंकार जिरला की 'अवघे देणे रघुनाथाचे' हीच संकल्पना. म्हणून मग अहंकार असावा पण ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकाराकडे त्याला झेपावता आले पाहिजे. म्हणून अहंकाराचे चार स्तर आपल्याकडे सांगितले आहेत ना, ते थोडे समजावून घेतले पाहिजेत.ज्याला आपल्या व्यक्तिमत्त्वाचा परिचय नाही त्यांचा अहंकार हा अज्ञानजन्य अहंकार आहे. म्हणजे तो ज्ञानजन्य नाही. पण ज्यांन आपली ओळख पटायल लागली आहे त्यांचा व्यक्तिगत अहंकार आहे. ज्यांना आणखी व्यापक दृष्टी प्राप्त झालेली आहे त्यांचा व्यापक अहंकार आहे. ज्यांना आत्मतत्त्व प्राप्त झाले त्यांचा अहंकार हा ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकारामधे रूपांतरीत झालेला आहे. कारण त्याला ज्ञानाची बैठक प्राप्त झालेली आहे. असा ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार प्राप्त करणे हेच एका दृष्टीने प्रत्येक मानवाच्या आयुष्याचे अंतिम ध्येय आहे. तोच मोक्ष आहे. त्यालाच सायुज्यता असे म्हणतात. 'याचि देही याचि डोळा' परमतत्त्वाचा गोमटा लाभ आपण करून घेतलेला आहे, कारण तिथे ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार प्राप्त झालेला आहे, त्या स्वानंद सुखाची ठेव ही प्रत्येकाला प्राप्त व्हावं अशी प्रार्थना ज्ञानेश्वर महाराजांनी केली आहे. आणि म्हणून त्यागाकडून आणखी वरच्या त्यागाकडे आपल्याला झेपावता आले पाहिजे. आपल्याला स्वर्थत्यागाकडून सामान्य त्यागाकडे, सामान्य त्यागाकडून मध्यम त्यागाकडे, मध्यमाकडून सर्वोच्च त्याग कडे झेपावता आले पाहिजे कारण सगळ्या व्यक्तिमत्त्वाचा पाया जर कोणता असेल तर तो त्यागाचा आहे. आणि हे त्यागाचे लेणे, हे त्यागाचे मोठेपण, या त्यागाची सूक्ष्म भूमिका, या त्यागाचे जीवनमूल्य आम्हाला कुठे मिळेल तर आई-वडिलांच्या सहवासामधे मिळेल. कुटुंब संस्थेमधे मिळेल. हे संस्कार करायला कधीही आळशीपणा करू नका. आपण दूरदर्शन पहात बसाचे आणि मुलांनी मात्र अभ्यास करावा अशी भूमिका चित्तात कधीही ठेवू नका. स्वत: त्यागा म्हणजे मुले अभ्यास करतील, स्वत: ज्ञानेश्वरी म्हणायला बसा म्हणजे मुले बसतील. स्वत: गीता म्हणायला बसा म्हणजे मुले बसतील. स्वतः पसायदान म्हणा मुलां व्याकडून म्हणवून घ्या. जेवढा त्याग कराल ना तितके उंच उंच होत जाल!'अरे ! तू स्वानंद साम्राज्याचा चक्रवर्ती होशील' असे आश्वासन ज्ञानोबांनी दिले आहे. मला सांगा आणखी कुठले आश्वासन द्यायचे ज्ञानेश्वर महाराजांनी? याच्यापेक्षा काय पाहिजे आपल्याला सांगा. जर तुम्हाला स्वानंद साम्राज्याचा चक्रवर्ती व्हायचे असेल तर काय केले पाहिजे? 'ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार' वृत्तीचा स्वीकार केला पाहिजे हेच माऊलीने पसायदानातून सांगितले आहे. उता-यास योग्य शीर्षक कोणते देता येईल?
43
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
पुढील उतारा वाचून त्यावर आधारित यांची उत्तरे लिहा.माऊलीने पसायदान कशासाठी मागितले आहे? सगळ्या मानवांची प्रकृती हळूहळू संस्कृतीकडे वळावी. लोककल्याणाचा, काहीतरी चांगले घडवायचा मार्ग त्यांना दिसावा म्हणून पसायदान मागितलेले आहे. जावे ते सन्मार्गाकडे जावे, जावे ते आत्मकल्याणाच्या मार्गाकडे जावे, जावे ते सात्त्विकतेच्या मार्गाकडे जावे आणि म्हणावे, 'आमच्या हातून कृत्ये अशी घडोत, आमच्या हातून कर्मे अशी घडोत की ती परोपकारार्थ केलेली असोत' आणि म्हणून आयुष्यामध्ये प्रत्येकाची धडपड सज्जन व्हावे यासाठी असावी. मग आमची प्रकृती कशी असावी? आमचा प्रवृत्तिधर्म कसा असावा? तर प्रसिद्धीपराङ्मुख असावा. तो रावण सारखा कधीही नसावा. तो रामासारखा असावा! तो कृष्णासारखा असावा! तो संतांच्यासारखा असावा! तसा पिंड आपला घडावा म्हणून या प्रार्थना सातत्याने आपण केल्या पाहिजेत. मानवाच्या मनामधे जोपर्यंत अहंकार असतो ना तो अहंकार जोपर्यंत जिरत नाही तोपर्यंत प्रयत्न आवश्यक आहे. एकदा अहंकार जिरला की 'अवघे देणे रघुनाथाचे' हीच संकल्पना. म्हणून मग अहंकार असावा पण ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकाराकडे त्याला झेपावता आले पाहिजे. म्हणून अहंकाराचे चार स्तर आपल्याकडे सांगितले आहेत ना, ते थोडे समजावून घेतले पाहिजेत.ज्याला आपल्या व्यक्तिमत्त्वाचा परिचय नाही त्यांचा अहंकार हा अज्ञानजन्य अहंकार आहे. म्हणजे तो ज्ञानजन्य नाही. पण ज्यांन आपली ओळख पटायल लागली आहे त्यांचा व्यक्तिगत अहंकार आहे. ज्यांना आणखी व्यापक दृष्टी प्राप्त झालेली आहे त्यांचा व्यापक अहंकार आहे. ज्यांना आत्मतत्त्व प्राप्त झाले त्यांचा अहंकार हा ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकारामधे रूपांतरीत झालेला आहे. कारण त्याला ज्ञानाची बैठक प्राप्त झालेली आहे. असा ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार प्राप्त करणे हेच एका दृष्टीने प्रत्येक मानवाच्या आयुष्याचे अंतिम ध्येय आहे. तोच मोक्ष आहे. त्यालाच सायुज्यता असे म्हणतात. 'याचि देही याचि डोळा' परमतत्त्वाचा गोमटा लाभ आपण करून घेतलेला आहे, कारण तिथे ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार प्राप्त झालेला आहे, त्या स्वानंद सुखाची ठेव ही प्रत्येकाला प्राप्त व्हावं अशी प्रार्थना ज्ञानेश्वर महाराजांनी केली आहे. आणि म्हणून त्यागाकडून आणखी वरच्या त्यागाकडे आपल्याला झेपावता आले पाहिजे. आपल्याला स्वर्थत्यागाकडून सामान्य त्यागाकडे, सामान्य त्यागाकडून मध्यम त्यागाकडे, मध्यमाकडून सर्वोच्च त्याग कडे झेपावता आले पाहिजे कारण सगळ्या व्यक्तिमत्त्वाचा पाया जर कोणता असेल तर तो त्यागाचा आहे. आणि हे त्यागाचे लेणे, हे त्यागाचे मोठेपण, या त्यागाची सूक्ष्म भूमिका, या त्यागाचे जीवनमूल्य आम्हाला कुठे मिळेल तर आई-वडिलांच्या सहवासामधे मिळेल. कुटुंब संस्थेमधे मिळेल. हे संस्कार करायला कधीही आळशीपणा करू नका. आपण दूरदर्शन पहात बसाचे आणि मुलांनी मात्र अभ्यास करावा अशी भूमिका चित्तात कधीही ठेवू नका. स्वत: त्यागा म्हणजे मुले अभ्यास करतील, स्वत: ज्ञानेश्वरी म्हणायला बसा म्हणजे मुले बसतील. स्वत: गीता म्हणायला बसा म्हणजे मुले बसतील. स्वतः पसायदान म्हणा मुलां व्याकडून म्हणवून घ्या. जेवढा त्याग कराल ना तितके उंच उंच होत जाल!'अरे ! तू स्वानंद साम्राज्याचा चक्रवर्ती होशील' असे आश्वासन ज्ञानोबांनी दिले आहे. मला सांगा आणखी कुठले आश्वासन द्यायचे ज्ञानेश्वर महाराजांनी? याच्यापेक्षा काय पाहिजे आपल्याला सांगा. जर तुम्हाला स्वानंद साम्राज्याचा चक्रवर्ती व्हायचे असेल तर काय केले पाहिजे? 'ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार' वृत्तीचा स्वीकार केला पाहिजे हेच माऊलीने पसायदानातून सांगितले आहे. अहंकार वृत्ती व त्यांची वैशिष्ट्ये यांच्या जोड्या जुळवा :पर्यायी उत्तरे:
44
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
पुढील उतारा वाचून त्यावर आधारित यांची उत्तरे लिहा.माऊलीने पसायदान कशासाठी मागितले आहे? सगळ्या मानवांची प्रकृती हळूहळू संस्कृतीकडे वळावी. लोककल्याणाचा, काहीतरी चांगले घडवायचा मार्ग त्यांना दिसावा म्हणून पसायदान मागितलेले आहे. जावे ते सन्मार्गाकडे जावे, जावे ते आत्मकल्याणाच्या मार्गाकडे जावे, जावे ते सात्त्विकतेच्या मार्गाकडे जावे आणि म्हणावे, 'आमच्या हातून कृत्ये अशी घडोत, आमच्या हातून कर्मे अशी घडोत की ती परोपकारार्थ केलेली असोत' आणि म्हणून आयुष्यामध्ये प्रत्येकाची धडपड सज्जन व्हावे यासाठी असावी. मग आमची प्रकृती कशी असावी? आमचा प्रवृत्तिधर्म कसा असावा? तर प्रसिद्धीपराङ्मुख असावा. तो रावण सारखा कधीही नसावा. तो रामासारखा असावा! तो कृष्णासारखा असावा! तो संतांच्यासारखा असावा! तसा पिंड आपला घडावा म्हणून या प्रार्थना सातत्याने आपण केल्या पाहिजेत. मानवाच्या मनामधे जोपर्यंत अहंकार असतो ना तो अहंकार जोपर्यंत जिरत नाही तोपर्यंत प्रयत्न आवश्यक आहे. एकदा अहंकार जिरला की 'अवघे देणे रघुनाथाचे' हीच संकल्पना. म्हणून मग अहंकार असावा पण ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकाराकडे त्याला झेपावता आले पाहिजे. म्हणून अहंकाराचे चार स्तर आपल्याकडे सांगितले आहेत ना, ते थोडे समजावून घेतले पाहिजेत.ज्याला आपल्या व्यक्तिमत्त्वाचा परिचय नाही त्यांचा अहंकार हा अज्ञानजन्य अहंकार आहे. म्हणजे तो ज्ञानजन्य नाही. पण ज्यांन आपली ओळख पटायल लागली आहे त्यांचा व्यक्तिगत अहंकार आहे. ज्यांना आणखी व्यापक दृष्टी प्राप्त झालेली आहे त्यांचा व्यापक अहंकार आहे. ज्यांना आत्मतत्त्व प्राप्त झाले त्यांचा अहंकार हा ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकारामधे रूपांतरीत झालेला आहे. कारण त्याला ज्ञानाची बैठक प्राप्त झालेली आहे. असा ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार प्राप्त करणे हेच एका दृष्टीने प्रत्येक मानवाच्या आयुष्याचे अंतिम ध्येय आहे. तोच मोक्ष आहे. त्यालाच सायुज्यता असे म्हणतात. 'याचि देही याचि डोळा' परमतत्त्वाचा गोमटा लाभ आपण करून घेतलेला आहे, कारण तिथे ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार प्राप्त झालेला आहे, त्या स्वानंद सुखाची ठेव ही प्रत्येकाला प्राप्त व्हावं अशी प्रार्थना ज्ञानेश्वर महाराजांनी केली आहे. आणि म्हणून त्यागाकडून आणखी वरच्या त्यागाकडे आपल्याला झेपावता आले पाहिजे. आपल्याला स्वर्थत्यागाकडून सामान्य त्यागाकडे, सामान्य त्यागाकडून मध्यम त्यागाकडे, मध्यमाकडून सर्वोच्च त्याग कडे झेपावता आले पाहिजे कारण सगळ्या व्यक्तिमत्त्वाचा पाया जर कोणता असेल तर तो त्यागाचा आहे. आणि हे त्यागाचे लेणे, हे त्यागाचे मोठेपण, या त्यागाची सूक्ष्म भूमिका, या त्यागाचे जीवनमूल्य आम्हाला कुठे मिळेल तर आई-वडिलांच्या सहवासामधे मिळेल. कुटुंब संस्थेमधे मिळेल. हे संस्कार करायला कधीही आळशीपणा करू नका. आपण दूरदर्शन पहात बसाचे आणि मुलांनी मात्र अभ्यास करावा अशी भूमिका चित्तात कधीही ठेवू नका. स्वत: त्यागा म्हणजे मुले अभ्यास करतील, स्वत: ज्ञानेश्वरी म्हणायला बसा म्हणजे मुले बसतील. स्वत: गीता म्हणायला बसा म्हणजे मुले बसतील. स्वतः पसायदान म्हणा मुलां व्याकडून म्हणवून घ्या. जेवढा त्याग कराल ना तितके उंच उंच होत जाल!'अरे ! तू स्वानंद साम्राज्याचा चक्रवर्ती होशील' असे आश्वासन ज्ञानोबांनी दिले आहे. मला सांगा आणखी कुठले आश्वासन द्यायचे ज्ञानेश्वर महाराजांनी? याच्यापेक्षा काय पाहिजे आपल्याला सांगा. जर तुम्हाला स्वानंद साम्राज्याचा चक्रवर्ती व्हायचे असेल तर काय केले पाहिजे? 'ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार' वृत्तीचा स्वीकार केला पाहिजे हेच माऊलीने पसायदानातून सांगितले आहे. सर्वोच्च त्यागाचे जीवनमूल्य कोठे प्राप्त होते?
45
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
पुढील उतारा वाचून त्यावर आधारित यांची उत्तरे लिहा.माऊलीने पसायदान कशासाठी मागितले आहे? सगळ्या मानवांची प्रकृती हळूहळू संस्कृतीकडे वळावी. लोककल्याणाचा, काहीतरी चांगले घडवायचा मार्ग त्यांना दिसावा म्हणून पसायदान मागितलेले आहे. जावे ते सन्मार्गाकडे जावे, जावे ते आत्मकल्याणाच्या मार्गाकडे जावे, जावे ते सात्त्विकतेच्या मार्गाकडे जावे आणि म्हणावे, 'आमच्या हातून कृत्ये अशी घडोत, आमच्या हातून कर्मे अशी घडोत की ती परोपकारार्थ केलेली असोत' आणि म्हणून आयुष्यामध्ये प्रत्येकाची धडपड सज्जन व्हावे यासाठी असावी. मग आमची प्रकृती कशी असावी? आमचा प्रवृत्तिधर्म कसा असावा? तर प्रसिद्धीपराङ्मुख असावा. तो रावण सारखा कधीही नसावा. तो रामासारखा असावा! तो कृष्णासारखा असावा! तो संतांच्यासारखा असावा! तसा पिंड आपला घडावा म्हणून या प्रार्थना सातत्याने आपण केल्या पाहिजेत. मानवाच्या मनामधे जोपर्यंत अहंकार असतो ना तो अहंकार जोपर्यंत जिरत नाही तोपर्यंत प्रयत्न आवश्यक आहे. एकदा अहंकार जिरला की 'अवघे देणे रघुनाथाचे' हीच संकल्पना. म्हणून मग अहंकार असावा पण ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकाराकडे त्याला झेपावता आले पाहिजे. म्हणून अहंकाराचे चार स्तर आपल्याकडे सांगितले आहेत ना, ते थोडे समजावून घेतले पाहिजेत.ज्याला आपल्या व्यक्तिमत्त्वाचा परिचय नाही त्यांचा अहंकार हा अज्ञानजन्य अहंकार आहे. म्हणजे तो ज्ञानजन्य नाही. पण ज्यांन आपली ओळख पटायल लागली आहे त्यांचा व्यक्तिगत अहंकार आहे. ज्यांना आणखी व्यापक दृष्टी प्राप्त झालेली आहे त्यांचा व्यापक अहंकार आहे. ज्यांना आत्मतत्त्व प्राप्त झाले त्यांचा अहंकार हा ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकारामधे रूपांतरीत झालेला आहे. कारण त्याला ज्ञानाची बैठक प्राप्त झालेली आहे. असा ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार प्राप्त करणे हेच एका दृष्टीने प्रत्येक मानवाच्या आयुष्याचे अंतिम ध्येय आहे. तोच मोक्ष आहे. त्यालाच सायुज्यता असे म्हणतात. 'याचि देही याचि डोळा' परमतत्त्वाचा गोमटा लाभ आपण करून घेतलेला आहे, कारण तिथे ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार प्राप्त झालेला आहे, त्या स्वानंद सुखाची ठेव ही प्रत्येकाला प्राप्त व्हावं अशी प्रार्थना ज्ञानेश्वर महाराजांनी केली आहे. आणि म्हणून त्यागाकडून आणखी वरच्या त्यागाकडे आपल्याला झेपावता आले पाहिजे. आपल्याला स्वर्थत्यागाकडून सामान्य त्यागाकडे, सामान्य त्यागाकडून मध्यम त्यागाकडे, मध्यमाकडून सर्वोच्च त्याग कडे झेपावता आले पाहिजे कारण सगळ्या व्यक्तिमत्त्वाचा पाया जर कोणता असेल तर तो त्यागाचा आहे. आणि हे त्यागाचे लेणे, हे त्यागाचे मोठेपण, या त्यागाची सूक्ष्म भूमिका, या त्यागाचे जीवनमूल्य आम्हाला कुठे मिळेल तर आई-वडिलांच्या सहवासामधे मिळेल. कुटुंब संस्थेमधे मिळेल. हे संस्कार करायला कधीही आळशीपणा करू नका. आपण दूरदर्शन पहात बसाचे आणि मुलांनी मात्र अभ्यास करावा अशी भूमिका चित्तात कधीही ठेवू नका. स्वत: त्यागा म्हणजे मुले अभ्यास करतील, स्वत: ज्ञानेश्वरी म्हणायला बसा म्हणजे मुले बसतील. स्वत: गीता म्हणायला बसा म्हणजे मुले बसतील. स्वतः पसायदान म्हणा मुलां व्याकडून म्हणवून घ्या. जेवढा त्याग कराल ना तितके उंच उंच होत जाल!'अरे ! तू स्वानंद साम्राज्याचा चक्रवर्ती होशील' असे आश्वासन ज्ञानोबांनी दिले आहे. मला सांगा आणखी कुठले आश्वासन द्यायचे ज्ञानेश्वर महाराजांनी? याच्यापेक्षा काय पाहिजे आपल्याला सांगा. जर तुम्हाला स्वानंद साम्राज्याचा चक्रवर्ती व्हायचे असेल तर काय केले पाहिजे? 'ज्ञानजन्य निरहंकार' वृत्तीचा स्वीकार केला पाहिजे हेच माऊलीने पसायदानातून सांगितले आहे. योग्य जोड्या लावून पर्याय ओळखा –पर्यायी उत्तरे :
46
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the question on the basis of the content of the passage.The richness of great books shows itself in the many levels of meaning they contain. They lend themselves to a variety of interpretation. This does not mean they are ambiguous or that their integrity is compromised. The different interpretations complement one another and allow the reader to discover the unity of the work from a variety of perspectives. But we can always go deeper into great books. As source of enlightenment, they are inexhaustible.The interest in many good books that are written is limited to a definite period of history. They do not exhibit the universal appeal that results from dealing with the fundamental questions which confront men in all times and places and in a way that men in all times and places can understand. Great books, on the contrary, transcend the provincial limits of their origin. They remain as world literature. The ones we are sure are great, are the once men everywhere turn to again through the centuries.In view of this, it is often said that great books must pass the test of time. This is quite true. But it is not the passage of time that makes the book great. They were great when they were written. An enduring interest in a book merely confirms its greatness. We may consider some contemporary books great, but we cannot be sure. Their excellence still remains to be proved before the tribunal of the ages.Mark Twain once remarked that “the great books are the books that everyone wishes he had read, but no one wants to read.” people wish they had read them because they are the indispensable material of a liberal education. They shy away from reading them because these books require thought. And thinking is hard. It is probably one of the most painful things that human being are called upon to do.The great books are not easy to read. No one should expert to understand them very well on a first reading, no even to master them fully after many readings. I have often said that they are the book which are over everyone’s head all of the time. That is why they must be read and re-read. That is also why they are good for us. Only the thing which are over our head can lift us up. Choose the best option:The great books _______ Provincial limits.
47
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the question on the basis of the content of the passage.The richness of great books shows itself in the many levels of meaning they contain. They lend themselves to a variety of interpretation. This does not mean they are ambiguous or that their integrity is compromised. The different interpretations complement one another and allow the reader to discover the unity of the work from a variety of perspectives. But we can always go deeper into great books. As source of enlightenment, they are inexhaustible.The interest in many good books that are written is limited to a definite period of history. They do not exhibit the universal appeal that results from dealing with the fundamental questions which confront men in all times and places and in a way that men in all times and places can understand. Great books, on the contrary, transcend the provincial limits of their origin. They remain as world literature. The ones we are sure are great, are the once men everywhere turn to again through the centuries.In view of this, it is often said that great books must pass the test of time. This is quite true. But it is not the passage of time that makes the book great. They were great when they were written. An enduring interest in a book merely confirms its greatness. We may consider some contemporary books great, but we cannot be sure. Their excellence still remains to be proved before the tribunal of the ages.Mark Twain once remarked that “the great books are the books that everyone wishes he had read, but no one wants to read.” people wish they had read them because they are the indispensable material of a liberal education. They shy away from reading them because these books require thought. And thinking is hard. It is probably one of the most painful things that human being are called upon to do.The great books are not easy to read. No one should expert to understand them very well on a first reading, no even to master them fully after many readings. I have often said that they are the book which are over everyone’s head all of the time. That is why they must be read and re-read. That is also why they are good for us. Only the thing which are over our head can lift us up. Chose the best option/s :The richness of great books shows itself in the many levels of meaning they _______ .
48
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the question on the basis of the content of the passage.The richness of great books shows itself in the many levels of meaning they contain. They lend themselves to a variety of interpretation. This does not mean they are ambiguous or that their integrity is compromised. The different interpretations complement one another and allow the reader to discover the unity of the work from a variety of perspectives. But we can always go deeper into great books. As source of enlightenment, they are inexhaustible.The interest in many good books that are written is limited to a definite period of history. They do not exhibit the universal appeal that results from dealing with the fundamental questions which confront men in all times and places and in a way that men in all times and places can understand. Great books, on the contrary, transcend the provincial limits of their origin. They remain as world literature. The ones we are sure are great, are the once men everywhere turn to again through the centuries.In view of this, it is often said that great books must pass the test of time. This is quite true. But it is not the passage of time that makes the book great. They were great when they were written. An enduring interest in a book merely confirms its greatness. We may consider some contemporary books great, but we cannot be sure. Their excellence still remains to be proved before the tribunal of the ages.Mark Twain once remarked that “the great books are the books that everyone wishes he had read, but no one wants to read.” people wish they had read them because they are the indispensable material of a liberal education. They shy away from reading them because these books require thought. And thinking is hard. It is probably one of the most painful things that human being are called upon to do.The great books are not easy to read. No one should expert to understand them very well on a first reading, no even to master them fully after many readings. I have often said that they are the book which are over everyone’s head all of the time. That is why they must be read and re-read. That is also why they are good for us. Only the thing which are over our head can lift us up. Which of the following statements are true in the context of the given passage?(a) Great books require thought.(b) Good books are world literature.(c) Hard thinking is not painful for man.(d) Great books do not have universal appeal.(e) Long-lasting interest in books make them great.
49
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the question on the basis of the content of the passage.The richness of great books shows itself in the many levels of meaning they contain. They lend themselves to a variety of interpretation. This does not mean they are ambiguous or that their integrity is compromised. The different interpretations complement one another and allow the reader to discover the unity of the work from a variety of perspectives. But we can always go deeper into great books. As source of enlightenment, they are inexhaustible.The interest in many good books that are written is limited to a definite period of history. They do not exhibit the universal appeal that results from dealing with the fundamental questions which confront men in all times and places and in a way that men in all times and places can understand. Great books, on the contrary, transcend the provincial limits of their origin. They remain as world literature. The ones we are sure are great, are the once men everywhere turn to again through the centuries.In view of this, it is often said that great books must pass the test of time. This is quite true. But it is not the passage of time that makes the book great. They were great when they were written. An enduring interest in a book merely confirms its greatness. We may consider some contemporary books great, but we cannot be sure. Their excellence still remains to be proved before the tribunal of the ages.Mark Twain once remarked that “the great books are the books that everyone wishes he had read, but no one wants to read.” people wish they had read them because they are the indispensable material of a liberal education. They shy away from reading them because these books require thought. And thinking is hard. It is probably one of the most painful things that human being are called upon to do.The great books are not easy to read. No one should expert to understand them very well on a first reading, no even to master them fully after many readings. I have often said that they are the book which are over everyone’s head all of the time. That is why they must be read and re-read. That is also why they are good for us. Only the thing which are over our head can lift us up. Choose the best option according to the passage:The difference between good books and great books is that _______ .(a) great books are read quite often but good books are read rearely.(b) good books are read all over the world while great book are not.(c) great books have universal appeal and the deal with all-time basic issues related to human beings but good books have limited time appeal.
50
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the question on the basis of the content of the passage.The richness of great books shows itself in the many levels of meaning they contain. They lend themselves to a variety of interpretation. This does not mean they are ambiguous or that their integrity is compromised. The different interpretations complement one another and allow the reader to discover the unity of the work from a variety of perspectives. But we can always go deeper into great books. As source of enlightenment, they are inexhaustible.The interest in many good books that are written is limited to a definite period of history. They do not exhibit the universal appeal that results from dealing with the fundamental questions which confront men in all times and places and in a way that men in all times and places can understand. Great books, on the contrary, transcend the provincial limits of their origin. They remain as world literature. The ones we are sure are great, are the once men everywhere turn to again through the centuries.In view of this, it is often said that great books must pass the test of time. This is quite true. But it is not the passage of time that makes the book great. They were great when they were written. An enduring interest in a book merely confirms its greatness. We may consider some contemporary books great, but we cannot be sure. Their excellence still remains to be proved before the tribunal of the ages.Mark Twain once remarked that “the great books are the books that everyone wishes he had read, but no one wants to read.” people wish they had read them because they are the indispensable material of a liberal education. They shy away from reading them because these books require thought. And thinking is hard. It is probably one of the most painful things that human being are called upon to do.The great books are not easy to read. No one should expert to understand them very well on a first reading, no even to master them fully after many readings. I have often said that they are the book which are over everyone’s head all of the time. That is why they must be read and re-read. That is also why they are good for us. Only the thing which are over our head can lift us up. Choose the best option/s:‘Great books must pass the test of time.’Which of the following statement is the closest in meaning to the above statement ?(a) Great books must pass our time.(b) Great books must be considered great over a long period.(c) Great books must be ready to test time.(d) Great books should pass the test conducted from time to time.
51
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Sanjay, Ashok and Ketan started a business with their investment in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5, After 4 months, Sanjay invested the same amount as before and Ashok as well as Ketan withdrew half of their investment. What is the ratio of their profits at the end of the year?
52
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
A natural number P is multiplied by 11 and 33 is added to it. This sum is divided by 9 and the remainder is zero. Select the smallest value of P that satisfies given conditions.
53
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
A committee of 10 members has to be formed from 15 men and 7 women. In how many ways can this be done when the committee consists of at least 6 women?
54
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Study the following statements and select the valid conclusion based on these from given options.(a) Members of farmer’s families only can appear for the agricultural university admission examinations.(b) Some girls are appearing for admission examination.(c) All girls candidates are given free coaching for one NGO.
55
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Vini travels by monorail to work. She has to use escalator to reach the platform. It takes her 21.0 seconds to reach the top of the escalator if she runs 8 steps. If she runs 13 steps it takes only 13.5 seconds. Select the number of seconds that she would require to reach the top of escalator if she decides not to run any step.
56
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Study the following information and select guilty person.Ram was visiting a place where inhabitants always answer any question with two sentences. One of these is always true while other is always false. While on the visit he found that his bag has been stolen and he suspected three persons those visited his guest room. He was sure that only one person is guilty. When he questioned them they replied as follows.R : S did not do it. I did not do it.S : I did not do it. P did not do it.T : I did not do it . I did not know who did it.
57
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
There are six books kept in a steel rack and are pasted with signs as L, M, N, O, P and Q, M, P, N and Q have blue covers while others have red covers. L, M and Q are new volumes while the rest are old volumes. L, M and N are law books while the rest are engineering books. Then which new book of law book has a blue cover ?
58
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
The diameters of the bigger wheel and smaller wheel of a tractor are 50 cm and 35 cm respectively. How many revolutions will the smaller wheel make when the bigger one makes 21 revolutions?
59
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
The research published in the ‘journal of Clinical Endocrinology and Metabolism’, is the first of its kinds to investigate the association between the chemical triclosan, exposure with bone mineral density and osteoporosis. A person can be exposed to triclosan via consume products like soaps, toothpastes, sanitizers and other such products. ‘however little is known about the relationship between triclosan and human bone health. Laboratory studies have demonstrated that triclosan may have potential to adversely affect the bone density in animals,’ said one scientist studying effects of triclosan.Select the most appropriate conclusion based on above information.
60
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Study the information and select the statement that is definitely true with respect to it.A’s house is located to the east of houses of B and C . Houses of D and E are located to the north of B’s house. In the early morning shadow of E’s two storied house falls on D’s house. E’s house located to the west of C’s house.
61
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
An equilateral triangle is inscribed in a circle. Select the option that indicates how many times is the area of circle with respect to the area of triangle.
62
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Study the transparent papersheet given on the left-hand side that is folded to get triangle of small size by folding it along dotted diagonals bisecting each other and diamond shape formed due to these and select the most appropriate fold from the options.
63
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
A kidney can be taken safely from a living person and can save the life of a dying patient. Given that the demand for kidney transplants exceeds the supply of donated kidneys, the law in the India that forbids people to sell one of their kidneys should be abolished, because this would result in a greater number of successful kidney transplants. People are worried that it would involve to support one’s family is not very much different from supporting one’s family by working in a dangerous occupation. Some patients have bought kidney and received transplants in other countries, where the risks to their life from such operations can be great.Select an assumption supporting the above argument from following options.
64
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Zina has written down four natural numbers in column. She chose three of these numbers at a time such that all numbers had equal chances of getting added. Each triple she came up with sums 186, 206, 215 and 194. Select the largest number that Zina has written.
65
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Study the accompanying figure showing overlapping equilateral triangles and select the value of angle a in degrees.
66
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Select the odd object:
67
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Read the following conversation carefully and using this as evidence, select the option that serves as a conclusion pointing to the disagreement between treasure hunter and archaeologist.Treasure Hunter: in general, archaeological artefacts found on public property cannot legally be privately owned. Centuries-old maritime law allows persons who risk their lives attempting to rescue a sunken ship are permitted to keep whatever cargo they can salvage. Under this rule treasure hunters clearly are entitled to keep the cargo from ancient shipwrecks that they risk their lives to save from becoming extinct in salty ocean waters.Archaeologist: Not so. These shipwrecks have stabilized over the centuries they have lain underwater. The only danger they are in is from greedy treasure hunters who destroy valuable archaeological evidence in their hurry to loot artefacts for making high profits.
68
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
S is having some colourful seashells. She gave one third of these shells and 14 more besides to P. P gave on third of these shells and 11 more besides to Q. Q gave one third of these shells and one more besides to her friend R. If R got 14 shells from Q then select the number of shells S originally has.
69
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Select the pair of persons one of whom is the uncle from mother’s side and his niece respectively using given information. ‘B’ is the father of ‘C’ but ‘C’ is not his son. ‘P’ is the brother of ‘C’. ‘A’ is the spouse of ‘B’. ‘Q’ is the daughter of ‘C’. ‘R’ is son of ‘P’. ‘S’ is spouse of ‘P’ ‘T’ is father of ‘S’.
70
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Two of the four statements given below cannot be true simultaneously, but they can be false at the same time. Select the option that indicates the pair of statements that satisfy given conditions.Statements :(a) No citizen of smart city X wastes a single drop of water.(b) Some citizens of smart city X use water carefully.(c) Every citizen of smart city X uses water without caring about water crisis.(d) Some citizens of smart city X use water carelessly.
71
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Two teams are to be formed for completing two different projects in stipulated time using students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. If G and H are selected as the members of team 1, select the members of team 2 with respect to the following conditions.There should be at most five students or at least four students in a first team. Each student is to be selected for only one project. For smooth working it is useful to include C along with A as they enjoy working together but A and H always waste time tin debating. B and F are not comfortable to work with C . E comfortably works with A and D but not with G.
72
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Accompanying graphical representation shows ratios of export to import of two companies namely A (with squares) and B (with triangles) over the given years. In 2014, export of company A was double to that of company B. If the import of company A during the year 2014 is Rs. 400 crores, select the most-nearest approximate export of company B during that year.
73
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Below four statements and three conclusions are given, you have to take the given statements to be true. Decide which of the given conclusions logically true from given statements.Statements : All roads are buses.Some buses are cars.Some cars are days.All days are nights.Conclusions : (I) Some night are buses.(II) Some nights are cars.(III) Some days are buses.
74
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Study information given and select valid conclusion/s from the given statements based on it.In a joint family the number of members who take only coffee is equal to the half the number of members who take tea and the number of persons who take only tea is equal to the half the number of persons who take coffee.Statements :(a) The total number of persons who take either coffee or tea or both is thrice the number of persons who take only coffee or only tea.(b) The total number of persons who take only coffee and those who take only tea is twice the number of persons who take both coffee and tea.
75
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Sana wanted to compare her students’ performance after completion of present term with respect to Historical understanding. After analyzing their documents related to history activities and assignments and their records of class work, she found that Ashu’s performance level is higher during the term than that of Beena. Karim’s performance is of lower level than that of Dharm. Beena’s performance is of lower level than Karim’s and Ashu’s performance level is higher than Mike.Which of the following statement based on above information is incorrect?
76
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
You are working as the head of a NGO that is specialized in environmental audit. Your team has compiled a report about government owned power generation units that use coal. Your report shows that hese nits grossly violate pollution norms. Some government officials are threatening you that they will cancel registration of NGO for which you are working with for making this report public. They are pressurizing government laboratories for submitting favourable report about these units and this would tarnish the credibility of your NGO. In this situation your priority is to …
77
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
Your boss was responsible for some decisions related to changing quality of some product for increasing profit but unfortunately that was run into losses due to fall in sales. The management of the company compiled a committee to enquire into this problem. This committee called for your deposition regarding this issue. Your boss wants you to defend the decisions taken by her. She is likely to remain your boss for next two-three years. You would,
78
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
As the senior civil officer in-charge of some area, you are requested to be guest at the annual gathering of privately run old age home. While travelling to this place you came across many small settlements where tribal people were living in depleted shanties, though the area is full of natural resource like forests, rivers, springs and water ponds. When you inquired, people told that all the resources were grabbed by developers of old age home, forcing them to settle in small areas. They also told you that since people running old age settlement and inmates of the home are from high cast and they prevent these people from using river water, having a bath in the river or do fishing, using forest produce etc. your priority will be to:
79
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
You are a member of one active group that organizes cleaning sessions in your area. After reading the news that a safai karmachari dies every five days in India, all members of group have become restless want to work toward changing this situation. You all are quite aware of the fact that the wretched manual scavengers briefly make news when there is a sewer death due to asphyxiation or accident, but no authority is heard saying: This is our problem: we’ll fix it.’ You all are aware of the fact that thought many notable persons talk of manual scavenging as a “spiritual experience” for any scavenger cleans other people’s excreta because there is no option and no alternative employment for those born excreta because identified with scavenging. According to estimates of some agencies numbers of scavengers in our country is closer to 1,50,000. As a member of this group you will persuade other members to give priority for...
80
PYP
MPSC RAJYASEVA CSAT 2020
All these years you are heading the department that looks after the promotion of industries and the rule till now is “we were doing this for many years and making good profits and to be safe we should continue with this process in nearing future”. But what you see now that young entrepreneurs with no experience of running business are coming with their proposal with ideas you never heard of and making it difficult for you the selection for partial financial assistance. You will,
