Show that the function ${\text{f}}:{{\mathbf{R}}_*} \to {{\mathbf{R}}_*}$ defined by ${\text{f(}}x) = \dfrac{1}{x}$ is one-one and onto, where ${{\mathbf{R}}_*}$ is the set of all non-zero real numbers. Is the result true, if the domain ${{\mathbf{R}}_*}$ is replaced by ${\text{N}}$ with co-domain being same as ${{\mathbf{R}}_*}$?
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Ans: Given that, f: ${{\text{R}}^*} \to {R_*}$ is defined by ${\text{f}}(x) = \dfrac{1}{x}$.
Consider $x,\,\,y \in R*$ such that ${\text{f}}(x) = {\text{f}}(y)$
$ \Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{x} = \dfrac{1}{y}$
$ \Rightarrow x = y$
Thus, ${\text{f}}$ is one-one.
It is clear that for $y \in R*$, there exists $x = \dfrac{1}{y} \in R*[$ as $y \ne 0]$ such that
${\text{f}}(x) = \dfrac{1}{{\left( {\dfrac{1}{y}} \right)}} = {\text{y}}$
Thus, ${\text{f}}$ is onto.
Therefore, the given function ${\text{f}}$ is one-one and onto.
Now, consider function ${\text{g}}:{\text{N}} \to {{\text{R}}_*}$ defined by ${\text{g}}(x) = \dfrac{1}{x}$
We have, $g\left( {{x_1}} \right) = g\left( {{x_2}} \right)\quad \Rightarrow \, = \dfrac{1}{{{x_1}}} = \dfrac{1}{{{x_2}}}$
$ \Rightarrow {x_1} = {x_2}$
Thus, \[{\text{g}}\] is one-one.
It is clear that ${\text{g}}$ is not onto as for $1.2 \in = {{\text{R}}_*}$, there does not exist any $x$ in ${\text{N}}$ such that
${\text{g}}(x)$ $ = \dfrac{1}{{1.2}}$
Therefore, the function ${\text{g}}$ is one-one but not onto.